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Let us consider the map $t_{AB}^*:H^1(A,F)\to H^1(B,F)$ between the cohomology groups, induced by the refinement map $t_{AB}:J\to I$, where $F$ is a sheaf of abelian groups on $X$, $A$ and $B$ are open coverings of $X$ with indices in $I$ and $J$. It is well known that this map is injective (see Forster, Lectures on Riemann Surfaces, Lemma 12.4).

The map $t_{AB}^*$ can be defined for cohomology groups $H^q$, $q>1$. Is this induced mapping still injective? Or is there a simple counterexample for $q=2$?

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  • $\begingroup$ It didn't trip here, but be careful using * in posts on SE sites without using MathJax. If there are two of them in a paragraph, then it's easy for them accidentally to get mis-interpreted as switching to italics. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jan 16 at 15:30
  • $\begingroup$ @DanTuretsky, some users intentionally avoid using MathJax in their posts, so it may be considered part of respecting author intention not to edit it in if it has not been used at all. (But I don't know whether the modern MO norm is to respect this particular intention.) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jan 16 at 15:58
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice Fair enough. My apologies, Alexander. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 17 at 21:18

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Here is a counterexample. Let's work over a field $k$ (you can take $k=\mathbb{C}$). Take $X=\mathbb{P^1}\times\mathbb{P^1}$ and let $\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{O}(-1)\boxtimes\mathcal{O}(-2)$. Take any affine covering $B$ and let $A=B\cup \{U\}$, where $U$ is the complement to $\{p\}\times \mathbb{P}^1$, $p$ being any $k$-point. Since, $B$ is affine, the corresponding Čech complex computes cohomology of $\mathcal{F}$, which is $0$. It is enough to show that $H^\bullet(A,\mathcal{F})$ is nonzero.

In order to compute $H^\bullet(A,\mathcal{F})$, let us use the Čech-to-derived functor cohomology spectral sequence. Its second page is $$ E^{p,q}_2 = H^p(A,\mathcal{H}^q(X, \mathcal{F})) \Rightarrow H^{p+q}(X, \mathcal{F}),$$ and it our case it converges to 0! Here $\mathcal{H}^q(X, \mathcal{F})$ is just the presheaf whose sections over an open $V$ equal the cohomology group $H^q(V, \mathcal{F})$. What does this spectral sequence look like? I claim that for $p>0$ and $q>0$ one has $E^{p,q}_2 = 0$. Indeed, every intersection of at least two elements in $A$ is affine (either use the obvious $B$ and check it by hand or use the fact that the inclusion morphism $U\to X$ is affine since $U$ is a complement of an effective Cartier divisor), and coherent sheaves do not have higher cohomology over affine opens. Next, let us look at $E^{0,q}_2$. Check that in our particular case $E^{0,1}_2=H^1(U,\mathcal{F}) \simeq k[t]$ (the functions on $\mathbb{P}^1\setminus \{p\}$). Finally, recall that the bottom row of the spectral sequnce $E^{p,0}_2=H^p(A,\mathcal{F})$. Here is what we get (the lower left corner of the spectral sequence). $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} H^1(U,\mathcal{F}) @. 0 @. 0\\ @. @.\\ H^0(A,\mathcal{F}) @. H^1(A,\mathcal{F}) @. H^2(A,\mathcal{F}) \end{CD} $$

Since the spectral sequence converges to 0, the differential $d^{0,1}_2:H^1(U,\mathcal{F}) \to H^2(A,\mathcal{F})$ must be an isomorphism. Thus, $H^2(A,\mathcal{F})\simeq k[t]$, and the restriction map $H^2(A,\mathcal{F})\to H^2(B,\mathcal{F})=0$ is not injective.

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