We are trying to understand the definition of $A_\infty$-algebras. But we are puzzled by what appear to be two different sign conventions (and we cannot figure out how these two are equivalent)
We see that an $A_\infty$-algebra $A$ consists of a graded vector space $A=\underset{n\in \mathbb Z}{\bigoplus}A_n$ along with maps
$$ m_k:A^{\otimes k}\longrightarrow A$$
of degree $(2-k)$. But what is the relation that these $m_k$ satisfy?
(1) See, for instance, page 6 of Keller (https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/9910179.pdf)
$$ \sum (-1)^{pq+r} m_{p+1+r}(1^{\otimes p}\otimes m_q\otimes 1^{\otimes r})=0$$
where the sum is taken over all decompositions of each $n=p+q+r$
(2) See, for instance, page 25 of Kenji Lefevre-Hasegawa (https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0310337.pdf) where we find the equation
$$\sum (-1)^{p+qr} m_{p+1+r}(1^{\otimes p}\otimes m_q\otimes 1^{\otimes r})=0$$
This difference in signs $(-1)^{pq+r}$ and $(-1)^{p+qr}$ seems to happen at many places in the literature. Is there some way to tinker with the indexing of the graded space, or put signs in front of the $m_k$'s to turn one definition into the other and vice-versa?
Thanks a lot for your time!