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For $n \geq 2$, let $f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ be a $C^1$ function such that the mixed partial derivatives $\partial_i \partial_j f$ exist and are continuous for all $i \neq j$. Is it true that $f$ is $C^2$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Please feel free to close the post. $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented Nov 21, 2023 at 14:28

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No. Let $f(x,y) = x|x|$. It is easy to check $df = |x| ~dx$ is continuous. The mixed partial $\partial^2_{xy} f = 0$ exists and is continuous. But the function is not $C^2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Ah, nice counterexample. $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented Nov 21, 2023 at 12:48

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