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Let ${ }_1 F_1(a ; c ; z)$ be Kummer's function defined by the function, and all its analytic continuations, represented by the infinite series $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(a)_n}{(c)_n} \frac{z^n}{n !}$. That is, $$ \begin{aligned} { }_1 F_1(a ; c ; z) & =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(a)_n}{(c)_n} \frac{z^n}{n !}, c \neq 0,-1,-2, \ldots \\ & =\frac{\Gamma(c)}{\Gamma(a)} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{\Gamma(a+n)}{\Gamma(c+n)} \frac{z^n}{n !} . \end{aligned} $$

Other symbols used instead of ${ }_1 F_1(a ; c ; z)$ are $\Phi(a, c ; z)$ and $M(a, c, z)$.

Another function closely related to ${ }_1 F_1(a ; c ; z)$ is the Tricomi function défined by $$U(a, c, z)=\frac{\Gamma(1-c)}{\Gamma(a-c+1)}{ }_1 F_1(a, c, x)+\frac{\Gamma(c-1)}{\Gamma(a)} x^{1-c} {}_1F_1(a-c+1,2-c, x) . $$ My question: How to prove this formula for $0<x\leq y$ $$\sum^\infty_{k=0}\frac{(xy)^k}{k!\Gamma(1+\alpha+k)}\Gamma(\beta+k)U(\beta+k,1+\alpha+2k,x+y)=\frac{\Gamma(\beta)}{\Gamma(1+\alpha)}{ }_1F_1(\beta,\alpha+1, x) U(\beta,\alpha+1, y)$$

Thank you in advance.

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    $\begingroup$ Why do you think identity is true? How did you get it? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2023 at 2:42
  • $\begingroup$ The formula seems to be wrong. The left hand side is symmetric in x and y, but the right hand side is not. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2023 at 7:16
  • $\begingroup$ @losif Pinelis. I found it in the following paper formula 11: " Resolvent of harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian and its application to Fourier transform for generalized functions". $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2023 at 14:09
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    $\begingroup$ @zoranVicovic Please determine a domain for the variables. You are right. The trivial case $x=0$ works, but in general the equation will fail. For example: Let $\alpha=\beta=1$, $x=1$, and $y=2$. The rhs evaluates to $\frac{e-1}{2}$. Exchange x and y ($x=2$, $y=1$) and redo the calculation of the rhs. We get $\frac{e^2-1}{2}$. But looking at the lhs, both values should be the same! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2023 at 15:36
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    $\begingroup$ @zoranVicovic The code is Gamma[1]/Gamma[2] Hypergeometric1F1[1, 2, 1] HypergeometricU[1, 2, 2] and Gamma[1]/Gamma[2] Hypergeometric1F1[1, 2, 2] HypergeometricU[1, 2, 1] $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2023 at 12:11

2 Answers 2

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The formula is wrong (except some special cases like for $x=0$).

The left hand side (LHS) is symmetric in $x$ and $y$. This would imply a symmetry of the RHS.

$${ }_1F_1(\beta,\alpha+1, x) U(\beta,\alpha+1, y)\\=\frac{\Gamma(1+\alpha)}{\Gamma(\beta)}\sum^\infty_{k=0}\frac{(xy)^k}{k!\Gamma(1+\alpha+k)}\Gamma(\beta+k)U(\beta+k,1+\alpha+2k,x+y)\\=\frac{\Gamma(1+\alpha)}{\Gamma(\beta)}\sum^\infty_{k=0}\frac{(yx)^k}{k!\Gamma(1+\alpha+k)}\Gamma(\beta+k)U(\beta+k,1+\alpha+2k,y+x)\\={ }_1F_1(\beta,\alpha+1, y) U(\beta,\alpha+1, x)$$

Clearly, this cannot hold in general. Let's take the example from my comment. If $\alpha=\beta=1$, we get $$_1F_1(1; 2; x)=\frac{e^x-1}{x}$$ and (see https://functions.wolfram.com/07.33.03.0401.01) $$U(1;2;x)=1/y.$$

Therefore $$\frac{e^x-1}{xy}=\frac{e^y-1}{xy},$$ which does imply $x=y$.

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    $\begingroup$ You are right. it is true when $0<x\leq y$ it is written in the following paper formula 11: " Resolvent of harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian and its application to Fourier transform for generalized functions". Thank you $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2023 at 12:43
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Numerically, the equality does seem to be correct for $y>x$. Here is a plot of the left-hand-side (gold) and the right-hand-side (blue) for $\alpha=\beta=x=1$,as a function of $y$.

Plot of $A(1,1,1,y)$ (gold) and $B(1,1,1,y)$ (blue) as a function of $y$.

$$A(\alpha,\beta,x,y)= \sum^\infty_{k=0}\frac{(xy)^k}{k!\Gamma(1+\alpha+k)}\Gamma(\beta+k)U(\beta+k,1+\alpha+2k,x+y),\\ B(\alpha,\beta,x,y)=\frac{\Gamma(\beta)}{\Gamma(1+\alpha)}{ }_1F_1(\beta,\alpha+1, x) U(\beta,\alpha+1, y).$$

The sum over $k$ converges slowly, for this plot I converted it to a Bessel function integral: $$A(\alpha,\beta,x,y)=\int_0^\infty dt\,t^{\beta-1} (t+1)^{\alpha-\beta} e^{-t (x+y)} \bigl[t (t+1) xy\bigr]^{-\alpha/2} I_\alpha\left(2 \sqrt{t(t+1)xy} \right).$$

The two curves depart when $y$ is still a bit bigger than $x$, this is likely an issue of numerical accuracy.


Concerning a proof, the paper cited in the OP gives a proof of a somewhat different identity, with the $U$ function on the left-hand-side replaced by the product of generalized Laguerre polynomials. I copy that proof below, for the record (the functions $_1F_1$ and $U$ are denoted $\Phi$ and $\Psi$ respectively). It may be possible to rework the left-hand-side of Eq. (11) into the Bessel function integral given above, something to check.

Ref. 7 points to page 140 of H. Buchholz, The Confluent Hypergeometric Function.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you a lot@Carlo Beenakker $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2023 at 14:37
  • $\begingroup$ I will try to verify the identity thank you for your book $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 17:31

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