Major Edit
I will reformulate my question signicantly, given Anton Geraschenko's comment. The old version of the question is bellow.
For simplicity, my base field is $\mathbb{C}$. If $G<\operatorname{GL}_n$ is a finite group of automorphisms of $\mathbb{C}^n$, then Chevalley–Shephard–Todd's Theorem says that $\mathbb{C}^n/G \simeq \mathbb{C}^n$ if and only if $G$ is a complex reflection group. My question was, given $G$ a non necessarily linearizable finite group of automorphisms of $\mathbb{C}^n$, to know what should be necessary or sufficient conditions for $\mathbb{C}^n/G$ to be isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}^n$ in this generality.
Clearly, a necessary condition is that the quotient $\mathbb{C}^n/G$ is smooth. However, if $G$ is a subgroup of $\operatorname{GL}_n$ this conditions is also sufficient. A proof of this fact can be found in Bourbaki's 'Groupes et algèbres de Lie', Chapter V.
Moreover, as Anton Geraschenko pointed out, there are known necessary and sufficient conditions on $G$ for $\mathbb{C}^n/G$ to be smooth:
Theorem: The quotient variety $\mathbb{C}^n/G$ is smooth if and only if the action on $T_x$ of the stabilizer $G_x$ is by complex reflections.
As I learned, this follows from Cartan's theorem on local holomorphic linearization.
Updated Question
The updated question, hence, is:
For arbitrary finite $G$, if $\mathbb{C}^n/G$ is smooth, is the quotient variety necessarily isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}^n$?
My guess is that the answer is No but I would not be surprised by a Yes.
Original Question
For the sake of simplicity, I will only consider fields $\mathsf{k}$ of characteristic $0$.
By $R_n$ I will mean the polynomial algebra over $\mathsf{k}$ with $n$ indeterminates. By $\operatorname{Aut} R_n$ I will denote the group of (algebra) automorphisms of $R_n$.
We can naturally consider $\operatorname{GL}_n$ as a subgroup of $\operatorname{Aut} R_n$. The Chevalley-Shephard-Todd Theorem is a celebrated result in classical invariant theory. It says that if $G< \operatorname{GL}_n$ is a finite group, then the invariant subalgebra $R_n^G$ is polynomial (in necessarly $n$ indeterminates) if and only if $G$ is a pseudo-reflection group (in its natural representation). When $\mathsf{k}$ is the rational numbers, then pseudo-reflection groups are just the Weyl groups; over the reals, the pseudo-reflection groups are the finite Coxeter groups; over $\mathbb{C}$, these are called unitary reflection groups and were classified by Shephard and Todd.
Now, $\operatorname{GL}_n$ is just a subgroup of the full automorphism group of $R_n$. A subgroup $G$ of $\operatorname{Aut} R_n$ is called linearizable if it is conjugated to a subgroup of $\operatorname{GL}_n$ inside $\operatorname{Aut} R_n$.
The study of which groups of automorphisms can be linearized is a very important topic in affine algebraic geometry, and for a classical (but somewhat outdated) survey of this question we have Kraft's 'Challenging problems on affine $n$-spaces'.
Restricting our attention to finite groups of automorphisms, we have that in $R_1$ every one one them is linearizable; the same can be shown for $R_2$, using the Jung–van der Kulk Theorem on the structure of $\operatorname{Aut} R_2$.
However, for $n > 2$ the situation is different. It was shown by Freudenburg and Moser-Jauslin ['A nonlinearizable $S_3$ action on $\mathbb{C}^4$'] that, for every $n \geq 4$, there is non-linearizable algebraic action of $S_3$ on $\mathbb{C}^n$ (and, as far as I know, the question of non-linearizable finite groups of automorphisms for $n=3$ is still open).
So, since finite non-linearizable subgroups of $\operatorname{Aut} R_n$ exists, I am interested in the following problem:
For arbitrary finite subgroups $G < \operatorname{Aut} R_n$, are there are known necessary or sufficiente conditions for the invariant subalgebra $R_n^G$ to be polynomial?
A second, more general question, I have, is the following: let $X$ be an irreducible complex affine variety, $G$ a finite group of automorphisms of $X$, and $\mathcal{O}(X)$ the algebra of regular functions on $X$. When can we say that $\mathcal{O}(X)^G \simeq \mathcal{O}(X)$?