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Influenced by this question from a fellow lagomorph, I would like to get to the bottom of existence of a skeleton of a category. I want to stay in ZFC, so I do not assume the global axiom of choice. Hence, not all categories necessarily have a skeleton.

Suppose $C$ is a category, $S$ is its skeleton, i.e., a full subcategory that meets every isomorphism class in a single object. I understand that the existence of $S$ is assured, if $C$ is accessible category.

Question 1: Are there any other, weaker or unrelated conditions that ensure existence of $S$?

Question 2: What would be a good example of $C$ such that $S$ does not exist?

Now the embedding $i:S\rightarrow C$ is not necessarily an equivalence. The issue is the same: we have to construct the (quasi)-inverse functor $f:C\rightarrow S$, both on objects and morphisms. To do that for each object $X\in C$ we need to choose $Y\in S$ and an isomorphism $X{\cong}Y$ -- using the global choice twice. Again $C$ being accessible gets us through.

Question 3: Are there any other, weaker or unrelated conditions that ensure existence $f$, once we know that $S$ exists?

Question 4: What would be a good example of $C$ such that $S$ exists but $f$ does not?

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    $\begingroup$ Are your categories classes or sets? If classes, are they definable? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 11:54
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins: for small categories (the objects form a set) the existence of a skeleton is just a single application of the axiom of choice, so I think it's safe to assume we're dealing with large categories. The question then is under what conditions we can avoid using global choice. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 12:08
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    $\begingroup$ This doesn't answer your question but it's worth mentioning: Scott's trick shows that in ZF every category has a 'weak skeleton,' i.e., a full subcategory whose inclusion is essentially surjective and in which every isomorphism class is a set (instead of possibly a proper class). (In some sense this is Scott's trick, although it's normally phrased in terms of just equivalence relations.) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 14:22
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    $\begingroup$ @James: If you have global choice for Ord-indexed families, you have global choice. Simply select a well-ordering for each $V_\alpha$, and then glue them together to well-order the universe. Now we can choose from whatever we want. $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 15:21
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins blaming the OP for sloppiness in the technical aspects of the question in which they are not an expert is a bit harsh. I'm sure I've asked questions ahere I have professed my ignorance on set theoretical aspects for the very purpose of getting guidance and clarification. $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Oct 27, 2023 at 8:09

1 Answer 1

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This is more of an extended comment, but given the fact that there seems to be an incorrect statement on Wikipedia, I felt like it might be good to write some of these observations out more fully.


As per Joel David Hamkins' comments, we need to be a bit careful about what we mean by classes and quantifying over classes and such. Since you want to focus on $\mathsf{ZFC}$, the only reasonable notion of class is that of definable classes (i.e., classes of elements selected by some formula possibly with parameters). I'm going to think about for-all-exists statements regarding classes in a relatively constructive way as in if I say 'for all classes $X$, there is a class $Y$ such that...', what I mean is that there's an explicit procedure for producing a formula defining the class $Y$ given a formula for the class $X$ which works in any model of $\mathsf{ZFC}$ (although this procedure may in general involve finding new parameters). In particular, statements of this form can also be taken as an assumption, rather than a conclusion, and this assumption may only hold over certain models of $\mathsf{ZFC}$. As Joel also pointed out, in principle things might get a bit hairy if there's no uniform bound on the complexity of the formula for $Y$ in terms of the formula for $X$, but I don't think that's really an issue here. I think these arguments would actually go through in $\mathsf{GBC}$, but I'm not sure.

I need a notion of equivalence of categories that is sensible without choice. I suspect the 'correct' notion involves anafunctors, but I don't actually know enough category theory to be able to work with those. All I really want to say is that equivalence of categories is an equivalence relation (again, this is a relation we're defining on formulas over some fixed model of $\mathsf{ZFC}$) and if I have a functor $F : C \to D$ that is fully faithful and essentially surjective, then $C$ and $D$ are equivalent.


First, we have the fact that if you have skeletons for too many kinds of categories, you definitely get global choice. (Thanks to Asaf Karagila for pointing out how to finish this argument.) Here's a reasonably general form of the statement:

We'll say that a category $C$ has a spine if there is a definable sequence $(A_\alpha)_{\alpha \in \mathrm{Ord}}$ of pairwise distinct isomorphism classes of $C$. (Note that we don't really need to worry about the $A_\alpha$'s being proper classes by Scott's trick.)

Proposition 1. If there is a category $C$ that has a spine such that any category $D$ equivalent to $C$ has a skeleton, then global choice holds.

Proof. Let $(A_\alpha)_{\alpha \in \mathrm{Ord}}$ be a spine of $C$. For each $\alpha \in \mathrm{Ord}$, let $X_\alpha$ be the set of all well-orderings of $V_\alpha$ (which is non-empty by set choice). Define a new category $D$ whose objects are either

  • $\langle B,0\rangle$ for some object $B \in C$ not in the given spine of $C$ or
  • $\langle A_\alpha,1,x\rangle$ for $\alpha \in \mathrm{Ord}$ and $x \in X_\alpha$.

The morphisms are defined from the morphisms of $C$ in the obvious way (e.g., the morphisms from $\langle A_\alpha,1,x\rangle$ to $\langle A_\alpha,1,x'\rangle$ for $x\neq x'$ are just the morphisms of $A_\alpha$ into itself. Note that the obvious map from $D$ to $C$ is a fully faithful epimorphism of categories, so $D$ and $C$ are equivalent.

Let $S$ be a skeleton of $D$. Evidently we now have a choice function for the family $(X_\alpha)$ (by asking which elements of the form $\langle A_\alpha,1,x\rangle$ are in $S$). Finally, by Asaf's argument we can piece these together to get a global well-ordering and therefore global choice. $\square$

We get an immediate corollary which is that if any category equivalent to $\mathrm{Set}$ has a skeleton, then global choice holds. In particular, this makes me question the statement on Wikipedia that in $\mathsf{ZFC}$ any accessible category has a skeleton.

I actually cannot come up with an example of a large category that does not have a spine, so Proposition 1 already covers most of the categories one would probably want to think about.


Okay but what about spineless categories? Is there any hope that they might have skeletons (which I guess would necessarily be exoskeletons)? In order for a result like this to be relatively natural, one would hope that it would be preserved under passing to equivalent categories. My intuition, however, is that skeletons are just far too evil for any kind of general (purely categorical) statement to not imply global choice. I don't have a proof of this yet, but I have a partial result, which I'll give here. Perhaps someone else can come in and complete the argument.

First we'll need the following fact.

Fact. ($\mathsf{ZFC}$) There is a linearly ordered proper class $W$ with a definable surjection $f : W \to V$.

Proof. Let $W$ be the class of sets of ordinals that code a structure isomorphic to the $\in$-diagram of the transitive closure of some set (via the Gödel pairing function). The lexicographic ordering on sets of ordinals gives a definable linear order. For any $x \in W$, let $f(x)$ be the set coded by $x$. $\square$

Proposition 2. Suppose that there is a large category $C$ such that any category equivalent to $C$ has a skeleton. Then there is a proper class $P$ with a definable linear order such that any $P$-indexed family of sets has a definable choice function.

Proof. Let $C'$ be the category whose objects are of the form $\langle B, x \rangle$ where $B$ is an object of $C$, $x \in W$, and $f(x) = B$. Define automorphisms in $C'$ in the same way as before. $C'$ clearly has a fully faithful epimorphism onto $C$ and so they are equivalent as categories. Let $S$ be a skeleton of $C'$. The definable linear order on $W$ now gives a definable linear order on the objects of $S$.

Now, let $\mathrm{ob}(S)$ be the class of objects of $S$. Let $(X_B)_{B \in \mathrm{ob}(S)}$ be an $\mathrm{ob}(S)$-indexed family of non-empty sets. We can now play the same game and define a category whose objects are of the form $\langle B,x\rangle$, where $B \in \mathrm{ob}(S)$ and $x \in X_B$. Taking a skeleton of this category gives the required choice function. $\square$

With a little bit of fiddling we can also make sure that the linear order is '$\mathrm{Ord}$-like' (i.e., has that each initial segment is a set), but I don't see what that buys us at the moment.

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  • $\begingroup$ It is a fair bit more technical than the argument that I gave in this answer, but I believe I can also show this: If there is a sentence $\varphi$ in the (first-order) language of categories such that any category equivalent to a category satisfying $\varphi$ has a skeleton, then global choice holds. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 17:41
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    $\begingroup$ Uhm, what's the language of categories, precisely? Wouldn't it be problematic if $\varphi$ could express the fact that the category has precisely one object and one morphism? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 22:34
  • $\begingroup$ @AndrejBauer Ah yes I need to be more clear than that. I need to assume that $\varphi$ is consistent with having infinitely many pairwise non-isomorphic objects (and that the statement regarding skeletons holds even for class-sized categories). By the language of categories I mean the two-sorted language (objects and morphisms) where you have relations (or partial functions) encoding all of the normal structure of a category (identity morphisms, domain and codomain, and composition). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2023 at 1:56
  • $\begingroup$ Basically the argument is that you can (in $\mathsf{ZFC}$ without global choice) build a category satisfying $\varphi$ that has a spine (in the sense of my answer). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2023 at 1:58
  • $\begingroup$ If $O$ and $M$ are the two sorts of objects and morphisms, consider the statement $\forall o \in O . \bot$. The only category satisfying this is empty, and so is any category equivalent to it, and also skeletal. (I just wanted to provide a simple example that shows something needs to be assumed about $\varphi$.) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2023 at 8:21

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