Let $F_1$ and $F_2$-non-trivial groups.
- Is it correct that the number of ends of the free product $F_1\ast F_2$ is infinite?
My thoughts about this: Since $e(G)=\infty$ then $G=F_1\ast F_2$, a non-trivial free product using Stalling's theorem. Applying Grushko theorem, $F_1$, $F_2$ are generated by strictly fewer elements. The intersection of $F_1$ with the free subgroup is a free subgroup. So from induction $F_1$ is a free group. The same is true for $F_2$. And $G=F_1 \ast F_2$ is free. Is it correct?
- If it is true. Is it possible to find examples of groups $G$ with infinitely many ends which are not represented as a free product of groups $G=F_1\ast F_2$?
If you don't mind can you explain this in more details?
Thank you!