2
$\begingroup$

I have encountered the polynomial equation

$$x^{n+1} = (1 - x)^n ( n + x )$$

where $n \geq 0$, and I am interested in its real roots. The number $n$ can be an integer or, more generally, any positive real number.

The main reason I am posting this very specific question here is that this could be one of those classical equations in some subarea of analysis or algebra, so perhaps somebody recognizes it by name. Of course, somebody might happen to have a good hint. It seems that this polynomial has only one single positive root.

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

9
$\begingroup$

The positive root is indeed unique and single for any real $n>0$. Indeed,

  1. for $x>1$, we have $$|(1-x)^n(n+x)|=(x-1)^n(n+x)<\left(\frac{n\cdot (x-1)+(n+x)}{n+1}\right)^{n+1}=x^{n+1}$$ by the (weighted) Arithemtic-Geometric Means inequality.

  2. for $0\leqslant x\leqslant 1$ there exists a root in $(0,1)$ since the function $f(x):=(1-x)^n(n+x)-x^{n+1}$ is positive at $x=0$ and negative at $x=1$. To prove that it is unique and simple, note that $$ (1-x)^{-n}x^{-1}f(x)=\frac n{x}+1-\left(\frac{x}{1-x}\right)^n $$ is a strictly decreasing (and with strictly negative derivative) function on $(0,1)$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ For non-integer real $n>0$ and $x>1$, it is not clear how you define $(1-x)^n$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Aug 31, 2023 at 9:00
  • $\begingroup$ @YCor indeed , but for any complex value $e^{n\log(x-1)+i\pi (2k+1)n}$ (with integer $k$) the proof works $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 31, 2023 at 9:39
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Fun fact: if you replace $y = x/(1-x)$ in the last term, then you can rewrite the zero condition as $y^{n+1} - 2 y - n = 0$. $\endgroup$
    – shuhalo
    Commented Sep 5, 2023 at 0:26
3
$\begingroup$

Fedor Petrov showed that, for natural $n$, the equation \begin{equation*} x^{n+1}=(1-x)^n(n+x) \tag{10}\label{10} \end{equation*} has exactly one nonnegative root $x=x_n$, and $x_n\in(0,1)$.


For $x\in(0,1)$, rewriting \eqref{10} as \begin{equation*} \Big(\frac x{1-x}\Big)^n=1+\frac nx, \tag{20}\label{20} \end{equation*} we see that, for each real $h>0$, as $n\to\infty$,

(i) uniformly in $x\in(1/2+h,1)$, the left-hand side of \eqref{20} goes exponentially fast to $\infty$ whereas the right-hand side of \eqref{20} is $O(n)$.

(ii) uniformly in $x\in(0,1/2-h)$, the left-hand side of \eqref{20} goes exponentially fast to $0$ whereas the right-hand side of \eqref{20} is $>1$.

So, for the only nonnegative root $x=x_n$ of \eqref{10} we have \begin{equation*} x_n\to1/2 \end{equation*} (as $n\to\infty$).

(As Emil Jeřábek noted, we also have $x_n>1/2$ for all $n$.)


Let us consider the possible negative roots $x$ of \eqref{10}. Here we have to distinguish two cases, whether $n$ is even or odd.

Consider first the case when $n$ is even. Then \eqref{10} (or, rather, \eqref{20}), can be rewritten as \begin{equation*} g_n(u):=n\ln\frac u{u+1}-\ln(1-n/u) \tag{30}\label{30} \end{equation*} for $u:=-x>n$. We have \begin{equation*} g'_n(u)=-\frac{n(n+1)}{u(u+1)(u-n)}<0 \end{equation*} and $g_n(u)\to0$ as $u\to\infty$. So, $g_n(u)>0$ for all $u>n$, and hence \eqref{10} has no negative roots $x$ if $n$ is even.

Consider finally the case when $n$ is odd. Then \eqref{10} (or, rather, \eqref{20}), can be rewritten as \begin{equation*} h_n(c):=(c-1)(1+c/n)^n=1\tag{40}\label{40} \end{equation*} for $c:=n/u>1$ and $u:=-x\in(0,n)$. Note that $h_n(c)$ is continuously and strictly increasing in $c>1$ from $0$ to $\infty$. So, equation \eqref{40} has a unique root $c=c_n>1$. Since $(1+c/n)^n\to e^c$, we see that \begin{equation} c_n\to c_\infty:=W(1/e)+1=1.278\ldots, \end{equation} where $c_\infty$ is the unique root $c>1$ of the equation $(c-1)e^c=1$ and $W$ is the Lambert function. So, when $n$ is odd, equation \eqref{10} has exactly one negative root $x=y_n$, and $y_n\sim -n/c_\infty$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Since $(x/(1-x))^n\le1<1+n/x$ for $x\le1/2$, we must have $x_n>1/2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 30, 2023 at 17:56
  • $\begingroup$ @EmilJeřábek : Thank you for your comment. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 30, 2023 at 18:04
  • $\begingroup$ I think Fedor’s proof works as well for any positive real $n$, the only doubt is in the use of the weighted AM—GM… $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 30, 2023 at 23:50

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .