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Let $k=\overline{k}$ be a field of characteristic $p$. Let $(K,\mathcal{O},k)$ be a $p$-modular system. Let both $k$ and $K$ be splitting fields for $G$ and its subgroups.

The ring $\mathcal{O}$ can have characteristic zero or characteristic $p$.

What is the difference? Which are important implications that follow in the first case but not in the latter one (and vice versa)?

I would be grateful for a book or another reference. Thank you.

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  • $\begingroup$ Related question on M.SE math.stackexchange.com/questions/4757141/… $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Aug 23, 2023 at 3:41
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    $\begingroup$ It's much more usual to assume that $K$ has characteristic zero. This is what leads to the usual theory of decomposition numbers and so on. See for example Feit's book, "The Representation Theory of Finite Groups". $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23, 2023 at 9:39

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