Feels like I am probably missing something obvious.
Are there distinct primes $p,q$ and positive integers $m,n$ such that
$$ \sum_{i=0}^{n} p^i = \sum_{j=0}^{m} q^j$$
Guessing the answer is no, but unable to prove it.
Feels like I am probably missing something obvious.
Are there distinct primes $p,q$ and positive integers $m,n$ such that
$$ \sum_{i=0}^{n} p^i = \sum_{j=0}^{m} q^j$$
Guessing the answer is no, but unable to prove it.
Richard Guy, Unsolved Problems in Number Theory, 3rd Ed., section D10, writes,
The conjecture of Goormaghtigh, that the only solutions of $$ {x^m-1\over x-1}={y^n-1\over y-1} $$ with $x,y>1$ and $n>m>2$ are $\{x,y,m,n\}=\{5,2,3,5\}$ and $\{90,2,3,13\}$ is still open; some results have been obtained by Le Mao-Hua....
Guy cites several papers of Le Mao-Hua:
On the Diophantine equation ${x^3-1\over x-1}={y^n-1\over y-1}$, Trans Amer Math Soc, 351 (1999) 1063-1074, MR 99e:11033 [but see Leu Ming-Guang and Li Guan-Wei, The Diophantine equation 2x^2+1=3^n$, Proc Amer Math Soc, 131 (2003) 3643-3645 (electronic)].
The exceptional solutions of Goormaghtigh's equation ${x^3-1\over x-1}={y^n-1\over y-1}$, J Jishou Univ Nat Sci Ed, 22 (2001) 29-32, MR 2002d:11036.
On Goormaghtigh's equation ${x^3-1\over x-1}={y^n-1\over y-1}$, Acta Math Sinica, 45 (2001) 505-508, MR 2003f:11045.
Exceptional solutions of the exponential Diophantine equation ${x^3-1\over x-1}={y^n-1\over y-1}$, J Reine Angew Math, 543 (2002) 187-192, MR 2002k:11042.
Actually, Guy cites over 40 papers of Li Mao-Hua, some of which have titles like "An exponential Diophantine equation" and might possibly be concerned with the equation we are discussing.
The Wikipedia page on Goormaghtigh's conjecture, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goormaghtigh_conjecture contains some more references.
I'm guessing that $1+5+25=31=1+2+4+8+16$ is the only example. There are certainly no more small examples, and probabilistically they get rare very quickly. But I only checked the first 80 primes to the first 80 powers. However, proving it might be quite tricky.
Going a bit outside the box here.
If we define a "Fibonacci-base" representation as
$$({\ldots}a_2a_1a_0)_F=\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_kF_k$$
where $a_k\in\{0,1\}$ and $F_k$ are the Fibonacci numbers, then applying the Shanks transformation to ${\ldots}111_F$ gives $-1$. Applying the Shanks transformation to the ordinary binary representation ${\ldots}111_2$ also gives $-1$.
\sum
, not \Sigma
, for sums; compare $\displaystyle\sum_{k = 1}^\infty$ \sum_{k = 1}^\infty
to $\displaystyle\Sigma_{k = 1}^\infty$ \Sigma_{k = 1}^\infty
. \\ I'm sorry that I'm too dense to understand: how does this answer the question?
$\endgroup$