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Let $(C^{\bullet},d)$ be a cochain complex over a field $k$ with char$k$=0. We fix an Artin local $k$-algebra $(A,m)$. A deformation of $d$ is a new operator $d+\epsilon: C^{\bullet}\otimes_k m\to C^{\bullet+1}\otimes_k m$ such that $(d+\epsilon)^2=0$. In other words we have a $\epsilon\in End^1(C^{\bullet})\otimes_k m$ such that $$ d_{End(C)}\epsilon+\frac{1}{2}[\epsilon,\epsilon]=0, $$ where $[-,-]$ is the graded commutator in $End^{\bullet}(C^{\bullet})\otimes_k m$ and $d_{End(C)}$ is the obvious differential. If we consider $(End^{\bullet}(C^{\bullet}), d_{End(C)})$ as a differential graded Lie algebra, then the above equation means that $\epsilon$ is a Maurer-Cartan element in $(End^{\bullet}(C^{\bullet})\otimes_k m, d_{End(C)})$.

For two Maurer-Cartan elements $\epsilon$ and $\eta$, we call they are gauge equivalent if there exists a $\phi\in End^0(C^{\bullet})\otimes_k m$ such that $$ e^{\phi}\circ (d+\epsilon)\circ e^{-\phi}=d+\eta. $$

Since $(C^{\bullet},d)$ is a cochain complex, we can consider other kinds of equivalences between Maurer-Cartan element. For example we call $\epsilon$ and $\eta$ are homotopy equivalent is there exists a cochain map $f: (C^{\bullet}\otimes_k m,d+\epsilon)\to (C^{\bullet}\otimes_k m,d+\eta)$ which is invertible up to cochain homotopy. Notice that this is not the same as the usual homotopy equivalence between Maurer-Cartan elements as in Deformation theory via differential graded Lie algebras, Section 5.

My question is : does homotopy equivalence imply gauge equivalence in our case?

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    $\begingroup$ Usually, everything would be tensored with a local Artinian ring or its maximal ideal. In particular, $\phi$ has to lie in $\mathrm{End} \otimes \mathfrak{m}(A)$ for convergence to be a concept when working over an arbitrary base. In that case, gauge transformations are precisely deformations of the identity (automatically isomorphisms). Without such assumptions, the set of MC elements consists of all possible cochain structures on the graded module $C$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24, 2023 at 9:07
  • $\begingroup$ @JonPridham If we tensor with the maximal ideal of an Artin local ring, is these two definitions equivalent? I have edited my question and could you have a look again? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24, 2023 at 20:39
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    $\begingroup$ For the edited question, gauge equivalence corresponds to $f$ being a deformation of the identity. There's probably a counterexample to the question in which $f$ is an automorphism of $C$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24, 2023 at 20:53

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