For a polynomial $f \in \mathbb{R}[x_1, \cdots, x_n]$, we say that $f$ is coercive (see my earlier question: Real polynomials that go to infinity in all directions: how fast do they grow?) if
$$\displaystyle \lim_{\lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert} f(\mathbf{x}) = \infty.$$
More precisely, $f$ is coercive if for all $c \in \mathbb{R}$ there exists $M(c)$ such that whenever $\lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert \geq M(c)$ we have $f(\mathbf{x}) \geq c$. Further, it is known that there is always a positive order of coercivity $q(f)$ satisfying the property that for all $c > 0$ there exists $M(c)$ satisfying
$$\displaystyle \lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert \geq M(c) \Rightarrow f(\mathbf{x}) \geq c \lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert^{q(f)}.$$
It is known that $q(f)$ can be arbitrarily small (see: How fast do coercive polynomials grow?).
My question is: does the following statement hold?
Let $f \in \mathbb{R}[x_1, \cdots, x_n]$ be coercive. Then there exists a positive number $c_1$ and a real number $c_2$ such that
$$\displaystyle f(x_1, \cdots, x_n) \geq c_1 \min\{|x_1|, \cdots, |x_n|\}^2 - c_2.$$