6
$\begingroup$

Let $X$ and $Y$ be standard Borel measurable spaces. A Markov kernel $f : X \rightsquigarrow Y$ is a map $f(-|-) : \Sigma_Y \times X \to [0,1]$ such that:

  • $f(-|x)$ is a probability measure on $Y$ for every $x \in X$,
  • $f(S|-)$ is a measurable function $X \to [0,1]$ for every $S \in \Sigma_Y$.

The set of atoms of a Markov kernel $f$ is $$A := \{y \in Y \mid \exists x \in X : \: f(\{y\}|x) > 0 \}.$$

Question: Is $A$ necessarily a Borel subset of $Y$? If not, is it at least universally measurable?

Clearly if $X$ or $Y$ is countable, then $A$ is indeed Borel. The non-obvious case is $X \cong Y \cong \mathbb{R}$.

For a concrete example, let $f : X \rightsquigarrow X$ be the identity kernel defined by $f(S|x) = \delta_x(S)$. Then the set of atoms is clearly $Y$ itself, hence trivially Borel.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ What is $\Sigma_Y$? $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 6:22
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Joel The Borel $\sigma$-algebra on $Y$. $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 6:24
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, that's what I thought, but I wasn't sure. $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 6:27
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, $\Sigma_Y$ is the Borel $\sigma$-algebra on $Y$. $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 6:53

2 Answers 2

5
$\begingroup$

Here probably a partial answer.

I claim that the set $A$ is an analytic subset of $Y$ and thus universally measurable.

If we assume that $X$ and $Y$ are uncountable standard Borel spaces, then wlog we can assume that $X=Y=[0,1]$.

There we can then consider the cumulative distribution functions: \begin{align} F(y|x) &:= f([0,y]|x), & G(y|x) &:= f([0,y)|x). \end{align} One can show by making use of the their one-sided continuity in the first argument that both $F$ and $G$ are jointly measurable maps w.r.t. the product $\sigma$-algebra: \begin{align} F,G: Y \times X &\to [0,1]. \end{align} This shows that also the map: \begin{align} Y \times X &\to [0,1], & (y,x) & \mapsto f(\{y\}|x)=F(y|x) - G(y|x), \end{align} is measurable w.r.t. the product $\sigma$-algebra. This shows that the following set: \begin{align} C&:= \{ (y,x) \in Y \times X \,|\, f(\{y\}|x) >0 \} \end{align} is a Borel set of $Y \times X$. Since both $X$ and $Y$ are standard Borel spaces we see that the set: \begin{align} A &= \mathrm{pr}_Y(C), \end{align} is an analytic subset of $Y$ and thus universally measurable.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Universal measurability is perfectly enough for our purposes, so thank you! Let me know in case that you'd like to be acknowledged with your full name. We'll include a link to this answer in our paper in any case. $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 12:22
  • $\begingroup$ @NateEldredge: For Lusin-Novikov to apply, don't we need the sections $C_y$ to be countable for every $y \in Y$, in contrast to the countability $C_x$ for $x \in X$, which we would get by the countably-many-atoms-only argument? $\endgroup$
    – Packo
    Jun 9 at 17:14
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, you're right, I got X and Y swapped in my head. Sorry. $\endgroup$ Jun 9 at 17:47
1
$\begingroup$

No, the set of atoms is not necessarily a Borel set. Therefore Packo's answer is the best that one can hope for.

For a simple counterexample, let $g : X \to Y$ be any measurable function with non-measurable image, and consider the associated Markov kernel given by $f(S|x) = \delta_{g(x)}(S)$. Then the set of atoms of $f$ is exactly the image of $g$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.