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I am reading article [1] of Paul Meier, and on page 7, the following probability distribution function is given:

Theorem: If $x_1, \dots, x_k$ are independently distributed with density functions: $$f_{n_i}(x_i) = \left(\frac{n_i}{2}\right)^{\frac{n_i}{2}} \frac{x_i^{\frac{n_i}{2}-1}e^{-\frac{n_ix_i}{2}}}{\Gamma\left(\frac{n_i}{2}\right)}$$ for $0 \leq x_i < \infty$ and $R(x_1,\dots,x_k)$ is a rational function with no singularities for $0 < x_1,\dots,x_k < \infty$, then $\text{Ave}\{R(x_1,\dots,x_k)\}$ can be expanded in an asymptotic series in $\frac{1}{n_i}$ . In particular:

$$\text{Ave}\{R(x_1,\dots,x_k)\} = R(1,\dots,1) + \sum_{i=1}^k \frac{1}{n_i} \left.\frac{\partial^2 R}{\partial x_i^2}\right|_{(1,\dots,1)} + O\left(\sum \frac{1}{n_i^2}\right)$$

My Question: It looks like in this theorem, the probability distribution $f_{n_i}(x_i)$ is a Chi-Square Distribution - but does anyone know any more information about this theorem? Does it have a name?

I have been trying to find more information about it to learn where it comes from, why it is useful and why it is true (i.e. proof).

Thanks!

Note: Screenshot of the paper in case I transcribed it incorrectly :

enter image description here

Reference:

[1] Meier, Paul. “Variance of a Weighted Mean.” Biometrics, vol. 9, no. 1, 1953, pp. 59–73. JSTOR, https://doi.org/10.2307/3001633.

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  • $\begingroup$ Please give more description of references than "this article" and a fragile non-imformative URL. The article is Variance of a Weighted Mean by Paul Meier, published in 1953 in Biometrics, with stable doi link doi.org/10.2307/3001633 $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 3:58
  • $\begingroup$ @ David Roberts: Thank you for your reply! I will do this - should I include this as a footnote in the end of the question? $\endgroup$
    – stats_noob
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 4:00
  • $\begingroup$ You can edit your question and replace the JSTOR link with the doi link (we've had to manually replace literally hundreds of rotted links in the past, doi is the best and most stable one), and also mention the paper title and author in the text. $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 4:02
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    $\begingroup$ Looks good to me! Thanks for editing this in. $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 4:47
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Thank you! I appreciate your guidance! $\endgroup$
    – stats_noob
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 5:02

1 Answer 1

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Q: Does anyone know any more information about this theorem? Does it have a name? Why is it true?

This result is simply referred to as "Meier's theorem" in the literature. It follows from the property that for large $n$ the chi-square distribution tends to a narrow Gaussian, $$f_{n}(x)\mapsto \sqrt{\frac{n}{4\pi}}e^{-(n/4)(x-1)^2}.$$ Now you can expand the function $R$ in a Taylor series around the peak of the Gaussian, $$R(x_1,x_2,\ldots x_k)=R(1,1,\ldots 1)+\sum_{i=1}^k \left.(x_i-1)\frac{\partial R}{\partial x_i}\right|_{(1,\dots,1)}+\frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^k (x_i-1)^2 \left.\frac{\partial^2 R}{\partial x_i^2}\right|_{(1,\dots,1)}+{\cal O}(x-1)^3,$$ and perform the Gaussian average, $$\mathbb{E}[R]=R(1,1,\ldots 1)+\sum_{i=1}^k \left.\frac{1}{n_i}\frac{\partial^2 R}{\partial x_i^2}\right|_{(1,\dots,1)}+{\cal O}(n^{-2}).$$

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  • $\begingroup$ What does "$f_{n}(x)\mapsto \sqrt{\frac{n}{4\pi}}e^{-(n/4)(x-1)^2}$" mean (mathematically)? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 6, 2023 at 18:47
  • $\begingroup$ if $X$ has the chi-squared distribution $f_n(x)$, then $(n/2)^{1/2}(X-1)$ has a normal distribution when $n\rightarrow\infty$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 6, 2023 at 19:50
  • $\begingroup$ Then, what does "$(n/2)1/2(X−1)$ has a normal distribution when $n\to\infty$" mean? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 6, 2023 at 21:04
  • $\begingroup$ In fact, if $X$ has the chi-squared distribution, then this distribution (or any distribution, which is a measure) cannot be the number $f_n(x)$ or even a function $f_n$. Also, then $(n/2)1/2(X−1)$ cannot have a normal distribution, whatever $n$ is doing. This is not just a question of having clear definitions. Without clear definitions, no proofs are possible. Accordingly, the claims you make in your post can be true only under certain conditions, not stated by you at all (if they can ever be true). $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 6, 2023 at 23:29

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