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In order to solve a boundary problem for a conducting hemisphere, the following matrix equation arises (derived from the boundary condition on the curved part of the surface) where we must solve for the quantities $b_n$, $n\in\Bbb N$: \begin{align} \sum_{n=0}^\infty U_{nk} b_n = a_k \label{1}\tag{1} \end{align} for $k=0,1,2,...\infty$, where $a_k$ are known and the matrix elements $U_{nk}$ are $$\begin{cases} U_{n,n}&=\frac{1}{2n+1} \\ U_{2n,2k}&=0 \qquad (n\neq k)\\ U_{2n+1,2k}&=-\frac{(2n+1)P_{2n}(0)P_{2k}(0)}{2(2k-2n-1)(n+k+1)} \\ U_{2n,2k+1}&=-\frac{(2k+1)P_{2n}(0)P_{2k}(0)}{2(2n-2k-1)(n+k+1)} \end{cases} $$ and $P_n(0)=(-1)^{n/2}(n-1)!!/n!!$ are the Legendre polynomials evaluated at 0. Note the matrix for $U_{nk}$ is symmetric, and checkered - all entries of the same parity are zero except the diagonal. (I don't know how relevant the exact values of the matrix elements are to my question of solveability, but there they are anyway).

I know that Eq. \eqref{1} is ill-posed/underdetermined because it only uses one of the boundary conditions; the true solution for $b_n$ can be found by combining \eqref{1} with other equations to obtain a final matrix equation, which I will name (2). What confuses me is that we can still solve Eq. \eqref{1} by itself, and apparently get a unique answer. For example if $a_k=U_{0k}$, then simply $b_n=\delta_{n0}$ solves \eqref{1}. But the solution to (2) also solves \eqref{1}, and I imagine that the other boundary conditions could be many different things, all resulting in different equations for (2), and hence different solutions for \eqref{1}.

My question is: how can we tell that Eq. \eqref{1} is underdetermined?

Also why might Matlab simply give one solution for \eqref{1} without a warning of non-uniqueness?

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    $\begingroup$ I am skeptical when you say "apparently get a unique answer to (1)". Is "apparently" a provable fact? I ask because it is a bit easier for infinite dimensional matrices to have kernels than finite dimensional ones. (For example, let $M$ be the lower triangle matrix that is 1 on the diagonal and also on the first subdiagonal, and 0 everywhere else. In finite dimensions this $M$ is invertible and has no kernel. But in infinite dimensions the vector $(1,-1,1,-1,1,-1,\ldots)$ is in the kernel, even though for every sequence $\vec{a}$ you can find a sequence $\vec{b}$ such that $M\vec{b} = \vec{a}$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 1, 2023 at 14:07
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    $\begingroup$ .) Fundamentally, this is why topology is involved/required in functional analysis; and you didn't specify anything that that effect. So my feeling is that you didn't give us enough information to really diagnose what the issues are. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 1, 2023 at 14:10
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, I had not considered the kernel size. I say apparently because Matlab only gives one solution, but I believe there should be many solutions. $\endgroup$
    – Matt Majic
    Commented Jun 13, 2023 at 2:04

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