Suppose we are given a sequence of stochastic processes $X^n, n\in\mathbb{N},$ with finite quadratic variations and a stochastic process $X$ such that for every $t\geq0$ $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\mathbb{E}(|X^n_t-X_t|^2) =0. $$ Is it then possible to infer convergence of the quadratic variations, i.e. for every $t\geq0$, $\langle X^n\rangle_t\to\langle X\rangle_t$ in some sense, perhaps $L^2$?
1 Answer
The answer is no - I will construct processes $X^n$ on $[0, 1]$ such that the limit in question holds for $X$ the zero process, but $\limsup_n \langle X^n \rangle_t =\infty$ almost surely for every $t \in (0, 1]$.
Indeed, for $n \in \mathbb Z_+$, and $1 \leq k \leq 2^n$, let $Z_{n, k}$ be identically distributed jointly independent random variables equal to $0$ or $1$ with probability $\frac{1}{2}$ each.
Define
$$X^n = \sum_{k = 1}^{2^{n}} Z_{n, k} \, \mathbf 1_{(\frac{k-1}{2^n}, \frac{k-1}{2^n} + \frac{1}{2^{2n}})}.$$
That the limit in question holds is obvious, since for every $0 \leq t \leq 1$, $X_n^t$ is almost surely $0$ for all large enough $n$.
We clearly have
$$\langle X^n \rangle_t = 2 \, |\{1 \leq k \leq 2^n t \, | \, Z_{n, k} = 1\}|.$$
Since the $Z_{n, k}$ are independent of each other, $B_{n, t} := |\{1 \leq k \leq 2^n t \, | \, Z_{n, k} = 1\}|$ is binomially distributed with success rate $\frac{1}{2}$ and number of trials equal to $[2^n t]$. Thus by symmetry of the binomial distribution,
$$\mathbb P \left (\langle X^n \rangle_t \geq [2^n t] \right ) \geq \frac{1}{2}.$$
By independence of the $X^n$ from each other, the events $E_n := \{ \langle X^n \rangle_t \geq [2^n t] \}$ are independent.
Thus by the second Borel-Cantelli lemma, $\langle X^n \rangle_t \geq [2^n t]$ infinitely often, almost surely; and so $\limsup_n \langle X^n \rangle_t = \infty$ almost surely, as claimed.
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$\begingroup$ Many thanks for your excellent counterexample. My questions were raised while I am trying to show that if $\lim_{n\to\infty}\mathbb{E}(|X^n_t-X_t|^2)$ and $\lim_{n\to\infty}\langle X^n\rangle=\infty$ then I hope to infer $\langle X\rangle=\infty.$ This seems to be still possible to prove. I am also additionally assuming that the $X^n$s have continuous sample paths. Do you have an idea how to prove this? $\endgroup$– El_magoCommented May 24, 2023 at 11:03
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2$\begingroup$ Hmm, I don’t see how immediately. Perhaps you could create a separate thread to ask the modified question, maybe others can help. $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2023 at 11:09
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1$\begingroup$ Actually, i think this is still not possible even with the assumption that it be continuous. Vaguely, the idea is to replace the jumps in this example with small continuous segments with nontrivial quadratic variation. This will yield essentially the same counterexample. $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2023 at 11:11
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1$\begingroup$ In fact I just realised you can even take $X^n$, $X$ to be deterministic… just take any sequence $f_n$ of continuous functions with quadratic variations going to $\infty$ converging uniformly to $0$, and set $X_n = f_n, X = 0$ a.s. $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2023 at 12:58