Let $f(z):=\langle g(z),g(z)\rangle,$ where $z \mapsto g(z)$ is holomorphic and $\langle \bullet,\bullet\rangle$ is an inner-product on some function space, such as $L^2$, such that $\langle g(z),g(z)\rangle = \int_X \vert g(z,x)\vert^2 d\mu(x).$
Then one has by a fairly explicit computation
$$ \partial_z \partial_{\bar z} \log(f(z)) = f(z)^{-2} ( f(z) \Vert \partial_z g(z) \Vert^2 - \vert \langle \partial_z g(z),g(z) \rangle \vert^2) \ge 0,$$ where positivity just follows from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
I wonder if one can generalize this formula to $f(z):= \operatorname{det}(\langle g_i(z),g_j(z) \rangle)_{i,j}$, where $g_i$ are holomorphic and if the log derivative still remains non-negative?
By a direct computation one has of course also in this case $$ \partial_z \partial_{\bar z} \log(f(z)) = f(z)^{-2} ( f(z) \partial_z \partial_{\bar z} f(z) - \vert \partial_z f(z) \vert^2),$$
but I do not quite see how to say anything more about this last expression, i.e. is $$f(z) \partial_z \partial_{\bar z} f(z) \ge \vert \partial_z f(z) \vert^2?$$
Numerical experiments suggest that this holds, but it is hard for me to verify it.