A subgroup $H$ of a group $G$ is malnormal if $gHg^{-1}\cap H=\{e\}$ for all $g\in G$ with $g\notin H$. It is almost malnormal if we merely require $gHg^{-1}\cap H$ to be finite.
I am wondering whether $\mathrm{SL}(n,\mathbb{Z})$, or $\mathrm{PSL}(n,\mathbb{Z})$, for $n\geq 2$, have (almost) malnormal non-abelian free subgroups. And why or why not?
More generally, I'd be happy to know a bit more about when countably infinite groups contain malnormal non-abelian free subgroups. Thanks!
Edit: As pointed out in Moishe's answer, this really should be a question for $\mathrm{PSL}(n,\mathbb{Z})$, not $\mathrm{SL}(n,\mathbb{Z})$, to avoid the possibility of (trivially) conjugating with $-I$.