In complex analysis, by Poincare-Lelong theorem, we have $$ \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\pi}\partial\bar{\partial}(\log|z|^2)=T_{z=0} $$ as currents, where $$ T_{z=0}(\eta)=\int_{z=0}\eta. $$ Now suppose we have two variables $z_1$, $z_2$. We have $$ \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\pi}\partial\bar{\partial}(\log|z_1|^2)=T_{z_1=0} $$ and $$ \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\pi}\partial\bar{\partial}(\log|z_2|^2)=T_{z_2=0}. $$
On the other hand, we have the general principle that wedge products of differential forms correspond to intersections of subvarieties.
My question is: can we define the wedge product $\frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\pi}\partial\bar{\partial}(\log|z_1|^2)\wedge \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\pi}\partial\bar{\partial}(\log|z_2|^2)$ so that it equals to $T_{z_1=0,z_2=0}$?