I have a question regarding the derivatives of the Riemann zeta function. It is known that $\zeta'(-1)=\frac{1}{12}-\ln A$, where $A$ is the Glaisher-Kinkelin constant (which is an elegant generalization of $\pi$). This led to the conclusion that $\zeta'(2)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}(\gamma + \ln (2\pi) -12\ln A)$.
I don't understand why similar formulas cannot be found for $\zeta'(-2)$, even though it can be easily established using the Euler-Maclaurin formula to write $\zeta(3)$ in terms of $\pi$ and a constant $A_1$ that generalizes both $A$ and $\pi$.