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Let $\mathbb{F}$ be a field of characteristic $2$, $n$ be a positive integer and $f_n:\bigoplus\limits_{i=1}^n\mathbb{F}\sigma_{i}\mapsto \bigoplus\limits_{i,j=1,i<j}^n\mathbb{F}\sigma_{i,j}$ be a linear map, where we identify $\sigma_{i,j}=\sigma_{j,i}~\forall~i,j\in\lbrace 1,\dots,n\rbrace$, which is defined as: $$f_n(\sigma_i)=\sum_{j<i}\binom{i}{j}\sigma_{i,j}+\sum_{i<j}\binom{n-i+1}{j-i}\sigma_{i,j}~\forall~i=1,\dots,n$$ I want to compute $\dim_{\mathbb{F}}(\ker(f_n))$. Since we are in characteristic $2$ we would need to know when the combinatorial numbers are even or odd, for which there are theorems like Kummer's theorem, or Lucas' theorem. Sierpinski-Pascal-Triangle give us a geometric description of the parity of the combinatorial numbers, however I don't have ideas on how to use these facts to solve the problem.

Thanks for your help.

Edit: Cheking some small values by hand I got that: $$\ker(f_3)=\mathbb{F}\sigma_2\Rightarrow\dim(\ker(f_3))=1$$ $$\ker(f_4)=\mathbb{F}\sigma_1\oplus\mathbb{F}\sigma_4\Rightarrow\dim(\ker(f_4))=2$$ $$\ker(f_5)=\mathbb{F}\sigma_2\oplus\mathbb{F}\sigma_4\Rightarrow\dim(\ker(f_5))=2$$ Moreover, it is easy to see that there is some kind of symmetry, for example if $f_n(\sigma_i)=0$ then $f_n(\sigma_{n-i+1})=0$ and in general, if $f_n(\sigma_i)=\sum\limits_{j\neq i} a_j\sigma_{i,j}$ with $a_j\in \lbrace0,1\rbrace$ then $f_n(\sigma_{n-i+1})=\sum\limits_{j\neq i} a_j\sigma_{n-i+1,n-j+1}$

Edit: Using the ideas of @მამუკა ჯიბლაძე I proved the following easy facts:

  • If $n=2^{m+1}-1$ then $f_n(\sigma_{2^m})=0$
  • If $n=2^{m}+2^{k}-1$ then $f_n(\sigma_{2^m})=f_n(\sigma_{2^k})=0$
  • If $f_n(\sum_{i=0}^n\lambda_i\sigma_i)=0$ then: if $n$ even $\lambda_i=\lambda_{i+1}~\forall~i$ even and if $n$ odd $\lambda_i=0$ for $i$ odd.

However, I am not able to prove anything else.

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    $\begingroup$ What happens for small $n$? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 7:42
  • $\begingroup$ @FriedrichKnop I've edited the question, hope it helps! $\endgroup$
    – Marcos
    Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 9:04
  • $\begingroup$ For $n=6$, the kernel is 1-dimensional, spanned by $\sum_{i=1}^6\sigma_i$, since\begin{align*}f(\sigma_1)&=\sigma_{13}+\sigma_{15}\\f(\sigma_2)&=\sigma_{23}+\sigma_{26}\\f(\sigma_3)&=\sigma_{13}+\sigma_{23}\\f(\sigma_4)&=\sigma_{45}+\sigma_{46}\\f(\sigma_5)&=\sigma_{15}+\sigma_{45}\\f(\sigma_6)&=\sigma_{26}+\sigma_{46}\end{align*}In general, kernels seem to be either 1- or 2-dimensional: they are 2-dimensional for $n=2,4,5,8,9,11,16,17,19,23,32,33,35,39,47$ and 1-dimensional for all other $n<50$ $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 14:44
  • $\begingroup$ Here are the spanning vectors of kernels for some small $n$:$$\begin{array}{rl}n&\ker\\\hline6&\sigma_1+\sigma_2+\sigma_3+\sigma_4+\sigma_5+\sigma_6\\7&\sigma_4\\8&\sigma_1,\sigma_8\\9&\sigma_2,\sigma_8\\10&\sigma_1+\sigma_2+\sigma_3+\sigma_8+\sigma_9+\sigma_{10}\\11&\sigma_4,\sigma_8\\12&\sigma_1+\sigma_4+\sigma_5+\sigma_8+\sigma_9+\sigma_{12}\\13&\sigma_2+\sigma_4+\sigma_6+\sigma_8+\sigma_{10}+\sigma_{12}\\14&\sum_{i=1}^{14}\sigma_i\\15&\sigma_8\\16&\sigma_1,\sigma_{16}\\17&\sigma_2,\sigma_{16}\\18&\sigma_1+\sigma_2+\sigma_3+\sigma_{16}+\sigma_{17}+\sigma_{18}\end{array}$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 15:01
  • $\begingroup$ Empirically, the kernel is spanned by $\sigma_{2^k}$ and $\sigma_{2^m}$ for $n=2^m+2^k-1$, $k<m$, and is 1-dimensional for all other $n$ (checked for $n\leqslant256$) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 15:36

1 Answer 1

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Let me start with the conclusion. @მამუკა ჯიბლაძე has the correct guess: if $n+1$ has two bits in its binary representation, then the kernel has dimension $2$; otherwise, the kernel is exactly one-dimensional. The only nonzero element in the kernel actually has a nice expression in binary representation. Suppose that $n+1=2^{s_1}+\cdots+2^{s_k}$ where $s_1>\cdots >s_k\geq 0$, then the only nonzero element in the kernel is $$\sum_{I\subsetneq [k], I\neq \emptyset}\sigma_{\sum_{i\in I}2^{s_i}}.$$ The following is a detailed proof for this claim.

I think the main takeaway would be that it is always convenient to compress a system of identities involving binomial coefficients into one identity involving one single polynomial. For any $\sum_{i=1}^{n}c_i\sigma_i$, we associate to it a homogeneous polynomial $F(x,y)=\sum_{i=1}^{n}c_ix^iy^{n+1-i}$. My claim is that the system of equations can be compressed into $$F(x+z,y)+F(z,y)+F(x,y+z)+F(x,z)=0.$$ (I am not sure if this is why you care about the identity, but if this is then I think it will be better to also mention this.) To show this, first note that the above identity clearly holds when $z=0$. Therefore we just need to check the coefficients of $[x^ay^bz^c]$ for $c>0$. Now note that $$(x+z)^iy^{n+1-i}+z^iy^{n+1-i}+x^i(y+z)^{n+1-i}+x^iz^{n+1-i}$$ $$=\sum_{0<j<i}\binom{i}{j}x^jy^{n+1-i}z^{i-j}+\sum_{0<j<n+1-i}\binom{n+1-i}{j}x^iy^{n+1-i-j}z^j.$$ Note that the second summand can be written as $$\sum_{i<j<n+1}\binom{n+1-i}{j-i}x^iy^{n+1-j}z^{j-i},$$ and so if we correspond $\sigma_{i,j}$ to $x^iy^{n+1-i}z^{j-i}$, we see that $\sigma_i$ is indeed mapped to $f_n(\sigma_i)$ via $F(x,y)\mapsto F(x+z,y)+F(z,y)+F(x,y+z)+F(x,z)$.

From now on, we will work with $F$ directly as it exhibits the symmetry better. Let $I\subseteq\{(1,n),\ldots,(n,1)\}$ and suppose that $F=\sum_{(a,b)\in I}x^ay^b$. Then by Lucas' theorem, $$[x^ay^bz^c]F(x+z,y)+F(z,y)+F(x,y)=1$$ if and only if $a,b,c\geq 1$, $a+b+c=n+1$, $(a+c,b)\in I$ and $a+c= a\oplus c$. The identity $F(x+z,y)+F(z,y)+F(x,y+z)+F(x,z)=0$ is then saying that for $(a,b,c)\in\mathbb{N}^3$ such that $a+b+c=n+1$, we have $(a+c,b)\in I$ and $a+c=a\oplus c$ if and only if $(a,b+c)\in I$ and $b+c=b\oplus c$.

Now we show that if $(a,b)\in I$, then $a+b=a\oplus b$ unless $a=b$ are both a power of $2$. Otherwise, there exists $c\neq 0$ such that $a\oplus c = a-c$ and $b\oplus c = b-c$ while one of $a-c$ and $b-c$ is nonzero (say, take $c$ to be the number represented by a bit that is $1$ both in $a$ and $b$). Without loss of generality, assume $a\neq c$. As $(a,b)\in I$ and $(a\oplus c)\oplus c = (a\oplus c)+c$, we know by the conclusion in the previous paragraph that $b\oplus c=b+c$, which is a contradiction. Therefore, unless $k=1$, the only candidates of elements in $I$ are those that split the bits of $n+1$ into two parts. We can now rewrite everything as follows: recall that $n+1=2^{s_1}+\cdots +2^{s_k}$ where $s_1>\cdots>s_k\geq 0$, and set $S=\{s_1,\ldots, s_k\}$. Then each element in $I$ can be rewritten as a nontrivial bipartition $A\sqcup B=S$. The conclusion in the previous paragraph says that if $A\sqcup B\sqcup C=S$, then $(A\sqcup C, B)\in I$ if and only if $(A,B\sqcup C)\in I$.

We now deal with the case $k\geq 3$ first. We first show that if $(A,B)\in I$, then for any $A'\subseteq A$ and $B'\subseteq B'$ that are nonempty, we also have $(A',S\backslash A'), (S\backslash B', B')$ are in $I$. To see this, simply apply the conclusion above to $(A', B, A\backslash A')$ and $(A, B', B\backslash B')$. As a consequence, if $I$ is nonempty, then there is some singleton $\{s\}$ such that $(\{s\}, S\backslash \{s\})\in I$, which in turn shows that $(S\backslash \{s'\},\{s'\})\in I$ for all $s'\neq s$. As $|S|\geq 3$, this shows that $(\{s''\}, S\backslash \{s''\})\in I$ for any $s''\in S$. As any nontrivial bipartition $S=A\sqcup B$ must satisfy that $B\subseteq S\backslash \{s''\}$ for some $s''$, we get that $I$ must contain all nontrivial bipartition. Combined with the previous paragraph which says that there are no other possible candidates, we have completely determined $I$, and it is easy to verify that this indeed gives a solution.

The remaining case is $k=1,2$. When $k=2$, we have already shown that $I\subseteq\{(\{s_1\},\{s_2\}),(\{s_2\},\{s_1\})\}$ as those are the only nontrivial bipartition of $\{s_1,s_2\}$. It is easy to show that all subsets $I$ work, which corresponds to a $2$-dimensional kernel. Lastly, when $k=1$, we note that there is no nontrivial bipartition of a singleton set, and thus the only candidate of elements in $I$ is the exceptional case $(a,b)=(2^{s_1-1},2^{s_1-1})$. It is easy to show that this indeed corresponds to the $1$-dimensional kernel in this case too.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks!! Just a couple of things. If I understood your proof correctly the set you defined as $S$ should be $I$. Also, what does the notation $a\oplus b$ mean? The reason why I care about this map is because it appears as the differential map used to compute the homolgy of a certain group, so I wasn't aware of the polynomial interpretation of the formula you gave. $\endgroup$
    – Marcos
    Commented Apr 28, 2023 at 8:59
  • $\begingroup$ Also, the second sumand should be $\sum_{i<j<n+1}\binom{n+1-i}{j-i}x^iy^{n+1-j}z^{j-i}$ $\endgroup$
    – Marcos
    Commented Apr 28, 2023 at 9:28
  • $\begingroup$ Moreover, I don't folow what $[x^ay^bz^c]F(x+z,y)+F(z,y)=1$ means. The $[x^ay^bz^c]$ is multiplication by $x^ay^bz^c$? Because in such case the equation feels weird. $\endgroup$
    – Marcos
    Commented Apr 28, 2023 at 9:45
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for catching the typo! The notation $[x^ay^bz^c]f(x,y,z)$ is the abbreviation for the coefficients of $x^ay^bz^c$ in $f(x,y,z)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 5:49
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    $\begingroup$ @მამუკაჯიბლაძე I've tried to generalize this question in a more general setting using your idea of $2$-cocycle in mathoverflow.net/questions/445969/…. $\endgroup$
    – Marcos
    Commented May 2, 2023 at 8:34

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