0
$\begingroup$

Currently, I'm reading the paper "Towards the fixed point property for superreflexive spaces" by Andrzej Wiśnicki. In this article, given $X_1,\dots,X_n$ Banach spaces, he defines $(X_1\oplus\dots\oplus X_n)_{\infty}$ as the product $X_1\times\dots\times X_n$ with the norm

\begin{equation*} \lVert (x_1,\dots,x_n)\rVert_{\infty}=\max(\lVert x_1\rVert\,\dots,\lVert x_n\rVert) \end{equation*}

With this, in the next proposition, he uses the fact that, given a free ultrafilter on $\mathbb{N}$, $\mathcal{U}$, the following relation is satisfied:

$((X_1\oplus\dots\oplus X_n)_{\infty}) _{\mathcal{U}}=((X_1) _{\mathcal{U}}\oplus\dots\oplus (X_n) _{\mathcal{U}}) _{\infty}$,

where $(X)_{\mathcal{U}}$ denotes the ultrapower of $X$ respect to $\mathcal{U}$. Why this equality holds?

In addition, if you have access to the paper, I would like to ask one more question. In this same proposition, after using the first fact I asked about, they say that it is sufficient to prove that $(X_1\oplus\dots\oplus X_n)_{\infty}$ has property $(S)$. Why? They have to prove it for $((X_1) _{\mathcal{U}}\oplus\dots\oplus (X_n) _{\mathcal{U}}) _{\infty}$ in case they want to use the relation above, don't they?

Thank you very much!!

$\endgroup$
3
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ My knowledge of ultrapowers is quite rusty, but isn't $X\mapsto (X)_{\mathcal U}$ an additive functor which automatically preserves (bi-) products? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 7, 2023 at 18:58
  • $\begingroup$ If possible, could you elaborate? I'm not familiar with category theory language, but I really appreaciate your help! $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 7, 2023 at 21:44
  • $\begingroup$ @JochenWengenroth Correct. The $\mathcal U$-ultraproduct is simply the filtered colimit of $\prod_{i\in U}X_i$, indexed by $U\in\mathcal U$. $\endgroup$
    – Z. M
    Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 7:18

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

I'll attempt to record a careful proof here for your first question. My apologies for any errors or inefficiencies, as I am a bit rusty. I will write $\|\,\|_j$ for the norm on $X_j$ and $\|\,\|$ for the max-norm on $(X_1\oplus\cdots\oplus X_n)_\infty$.

Writing $\Pi_0$ for the space of bounded sequences in $(X_1\oplus\cdots\oplus X_n)_\infty$, we have two seminorms on $\Pi_0$: for $x\in\Pi_0$, define $$\|x\|_{1,s}=\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}\|x_i\|$$ and $$\|x\|_{2,s}=\max_{1\leq j\leq n}(\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}\|x_i^j\|_j)$$

We have used subscripts to denote entries along the sequence direction, superscripts to denote the summand direction; e.g. $x_i^j$ is the $i$th element of the sequence in $X_j$. Observe that $\|\,\|_{1,s}$ and $\|\,\|_{2,s}$ essentially differ by commuting a $\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}$ with a $\max_{1\leq j\leq n}$. Thus we may write $\|\,\|_{1,s}$ as

$$\|x\|_{1,s}=\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}(\max_{1\leq j\leq n}\|x_i^j\|_j)$$

But this is just $\|x\|_{2,s}$; indeed, if we write $c^j=\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}\|x_i^j\|_j$, then for each $\epsilon>0$ and each $j$ we have

$$\{i:|\|x_i^j\|_j-c^j|<\epsilon\}\in\mathcal{U}$$

so by taking finite intersections

$$\{i:|\|x_i^j\|_j-c^j|<\epsilon\,\forall j\}\in\mathcal{U}$$

which in particular implies

$$\{i:\max_{1\leq j\leq n}c^j-\epsilon\leq\max_{1\leq j\leq n}\|x_i^j\|_j\leq\max_{1\leq j\leq n}c^j+\epsilon\}\in\mathcal{U}$$

so (by arbitrariness of $\epsilon>0$) we have $$\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}\max_{1\leq j\leq n}\|x_i^j\|=\max_{1\leq j\leq n}c^j=\max_{1\leq j\leq n}\lim_{i\to\mathcal{U}}\|x_i^j\|_j$$

and $\|\,\|_{1,s}=\|\,\|_{2,s}$ on $\Pi_0$. Finally, observe that $((X_1\oplus\cdots\oplus X_n)_\infty)_{\mathcal{U}}$ is the quotient of $((X_1\oplus\cdots\oplus X_n)_\infty,\|\,\|_{1,s})$ by the nullset $\|\,\|_{1,s}=0$, and $((X_1)_{\mathcal{U}}\oplus\cdots\oplus(X_n)_{\mathcal{U}})_\infty$ is the quotient of $((X_1\oplus\cdots\oplus X_n)_\infty,\|\,\|_{2,s})$ by the nullset $\|\,\|_{2,s}=0$; the result follows.

For your second question: I'm not sure, but I suspect that the author intends to say that it suffices to show that it suffices to show that $(Y_1\oplus\cdots\oplus Y_n)_\infty$ has property $(S)$, where $Y_j=(X_j)_{\mathcal{U}}$ and the author is swapping out notation; I suppose this works as long as the condition $\varepsilon_0(X_i)<1$ is stable under ultrapowers. Indeed, it appears that the author makes exactly that claim midway through page 439: "On the other hand, $\varepsilon_0(X)=\varepsilon_0((X)_{\mathcal{U}})$..."

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much! This is really helpful. I really appreaciate it! $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 7, 2023 at 22:20

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .