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This question is a question about nomenclature more than anything. I have shown all the math, but I don't know what to search for for similar results. In such a sense, it is more so a reference request, or a request for someone to point me in the right direction.

We start with the function:

$$ f_1(z) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{z^n}{1+z^n} \frac{1}{2^n}\\ $$

Which is holomorphic for $|z| <1$. And the second function is:

$$ f_2(z) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{z^n}{1+z^n} \frac{1}{2^n}\\ $$

Which is holomorphic for $|z| > 1$.

Both of these functions are expressed by the same summation, but on different domains. Using the usual concept of "Analytic Continuation" the functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are not related. They are analytic on non-intersecting domains. So, to call one a continuation of the other is a fallacy to begin with.

To make matters worse; both functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ have a "wall" of singularites along $|z| =1$. Where for all $q^n =-1$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ we have that $f_1(q) = \infty = f_2(q)$, which are simple poles. There is no domain $D \subset \mathbb{C}$ which intersects $|z| =1$ where either $f_1$ or $f_2$ are holomorphic--because there are a dense amount of singularities on this line. So any standard way of analytic continuation is hopeless.

BUT! And this is a big but. Let us take the contour $C = \{ \zeta \in \mathbb{C}\,|\, |\zeta| = 2\}$. And let's take $|z|<1$. Then:

$$ f_1(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_C \frac{f_2(\zeta)}{\zeta-z}\,d\zeta\\ $$

This is a pretty involved result, which basically amounts to. All of the residues of the poles along the "wall" of singularities sum to zero when added up. And all that's left is the function for $|z|<1$. This is one of those perfect moments where everything cancels out and $f_2(z)$ acts as an analytic continuation of $f_1$. Despite the fact "analytic continuation" is meaningless.

I like to write this as:

$$ f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{|z| = R} \frac{f(\zeta)}{\zeta - z}\,d\zeta\\ $$

For all $|z| < \min(R,1)$ for all $R \neq 1$.

From this, I'd like to ask my question. I'd like to think of $f(z) = f_1(z) = f_2(z)$, where $f(z) : \mathbb{C}/\mathcal{U} \to \mathbb{C}$; where $\mathcal{U} = \{z \in \mathbb{C}\,|\, |z| =1\}$. But I know this is kind of nonsense. But it's not entirely nonsense, because Cauchy's integral theorem still works... It's not really an analytic continuation--but it kinda (..?) is.

Any help is greatly appreciated! Any pointing in the right direction is also greatly appreciated!

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    $\begingroup$ look into the notion of generalized analytic continuation; there is a good monograph by Ross and Shapiro with lots of examples and beautiful results bookstore.ams.org/view?ProductCode=ULECT/25 $\endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 19:32
  • $\begingroup$ @Conrad Will do! Thanks! Any words I can link to this concept helps! $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 19:39
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    $\begingroup$ Your formula for $f_1$ as a Cauchy integral of $f_2$ would give a holomorphic continuation of $f_1$ to $|z|<2$ if correct, but in the previous paragraph you claim that there is no such continuation. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 23:55

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As I already hinted at in my comment, your formula is based on a miscalculation (the only alternative is that $f_1$ can actually be continued past $|z|=1$, which even without closer analysis looks highly suspicious since the summands have poles at $n$th roots of $-1$, as you pointed out). Here's a direct quick test that confirms this:

Take $z=0$. We can integrate $\int_C \frac{f_2(\zeta)}{\zeta}\, d\zeta$ term by term, so let's look at (for $n\ge 1$) \begin{align*} \int_{|\zeta|=2 } \frac{\zeta^{n-1}}{\zeta^n+1}\, d\zeta & =2^ni\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{e^{in t}}{2^ne^{int}+1}\, dt = \frac{2^ni}{n}\int_0^{2\pi n} \frac{e^{ix}}{2^n e^{ix}+1}\, dx \\ & = i\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{e^{ix}}{e^{ix}+2^{-n}}\, dx =\int_{|w|=1} \frac{dw}{w+2^{-n}} = 2\pi i . \end{align*} I use the standard parametrization $z=Re^{it}$ of the circle here (we can also get this more quickly by right away substituting $u=\zeta^n$). Also, when $n=0$, the integral equals $\pi i$. Hence $$ \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{|\zeta|=2} \frac{f_2(\zeta)}{\zeta}\, d\zeta = \frac{1}{2}+\sum_{n\ge 1} 2^{-n}= \frac{3}{2} \not= f_1(0)= \frac{1}{2} . $$

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    $\begingroup$ one can easily compute the integral in general since one can write everything as geometric series; eg above $\frac{\zeta^{n-1}}{\zeta^n+1}=\sum_{k \ge 0} (-1)^k\zeta^{-kn-1}$ for $n \ge 1$ and that integrates to zero unless $k=0$ and in general same thing except that one has a series for $1/(\zeta-z)=\sum z^k/\zeta^{k+1}$ and one for $\zeta^n/(1+\zeta^n)=\sum (-1)^k\zeta^{-kn}$ unless $n=0$ etc $\endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 2:20
  • $\begingroup$ Oh! Okay, this makes sense. I definitely made a typo somewhere. And in my Cauchy formula there's some $\delta$ factor which is added in once the contour passes the wall of singularities. I think the fact you noticed $3/2 = 1/2 + 1$ makes a lot of sense as I think about it. I was confused as to how this could possibly be an analytic continuation. I had a suspicion I was doing something wrong! Thanks a lot! $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 4:04
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    $\begingroup$ The calculation Conrad outlined shows that $\int_C f_2(w)/(w-z)\, dw$ is constant on $|z|<2$. This should also follow from the fact that $f_2$ is holomorphic at $\infty$. (If $g\in H^p(D)$, then the Cauchy integral is zero for $z$ outside $\overline{D}$.) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 18:01
  • $\begingroup$ @ChristianRemling You have pointed out an obvious error. But it didn't affect the work I am trying to do in the grand scheme. This actually made my other work make more sense. The integral $\int_C f_2(w)/(w-z)\,dw = 3 \pi i$, and is constant in $z$. The work I was trying to do still works out though. I was trying to write the reflection formula $f_1(z) = f_1(0) + \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_C f_2(w)/(w-1/z) \, dw$, which comes out much much cleaner now. I think I just got ahead of myself when I wrote this question, and I was confused why the numbers were working but it contradicted Cauchy's theorem. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 0:32
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    $\begingroup$ @RichardDiagram: Glad to hear this was of some value for you, that's more than one can usually hope for when posting something on MO. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 18:20

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