Like the title says, I am looking for a function f from N to N such that f(f(x)) is computable but f(f(f(x))) is not. I think it should exist, because i dont see how knowing how to calculate f(f(x)) would help you calculate f(f(f(x)), but I haven't been able to create a counterexample.
I came up with this question after solving a much easier one, finding a not computable function f(x) such that f(f(x)) is computable. One possible solution is using the fact that you can codify a pair of numbers as a single number, and then define f(x,y) = (HALT y, 0). Then, f(x) is not computable because it codifies HALT, but f(f(x)) = (0,0) so is certainly computable.
However, that previous solution relies on deleting the uncomputable information by the second iteration, and something like that wouldn't solve my new problem because f(f(f(x))) would be computable.