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Let $(\Omega, \mathcal F, \mathbb P)$ be a probability space. Let $H=(H_t, t\ge 0)$ be a stochastic process with continuous trajectories. Fix $T>0$. For $n \ge 1$, we define $$ H_{s,n} := \sum_{i=1}^{2^n} H\left(\frac{(i-1) T}{2^n}\right) 1_{ \left (\frac{(i-1) T}{2^n}, \frac{i T}{2^n} \right]}(s) \quad \forall s \in [0, T]. $$

Then for $(\omega, n) \in \Omega \times \mathbb N$, the map $s \mapsto H_{s, n} (\omega)$ is a step function. Because $H$ has continuous trajectories, we have $$ H_{s, n} (\omega) \underset{n \rightarrow \infty}{\longrightarrow} H_{s} (\omega) \quad \forall (\omega, s) \in \Omega \times [0, T]. $$


It is mentioned at page 35 of this note that

Preliminary fact If $\mathbb E[ \int_0^T H_s^2 \mathrm d s] < \infty$, then $$ \mathbb{E}\bigg[\int_0^T (H_{s,n}-H_s)^2 \mathrm d s\bigg] \underset{n \rightarrow \infty}{\longrightarrow} 0. $$

I have tried to verify this statement but got stuck. Could you elaborate on how to prove it?


My attempt

  • Fix $\omega \in \Omega$. We define $f_n:[0, T] \to \mathbb R$ by $f_n (s) := H_{s,n} (\omega)$. We define $f:[0, T] \to \mathbb R$ by $f (s) := H_{s} (\omega)$. Then $\sup_n \|f_n\|_\infty \le \|f\|_\infty < \infty$. Also, $f_n-f$ converges to $0$ pointwise. By dominated convergence theorem, we have $$ \int_0^T (f_n-f)^2 \mathrm d s \underset{n \rightarrow \infty}{\longrightarrow} 0. $$

  • We define $Y_n:\Omega \to \mathbb R$ by $$ Y_n (\omega) := \int_0^T (H_{s,n} (\omega)-H_s(\omega))^2 \mathrm d s. $$ As proved above, $Y_n \underset{n \rightarrow \infty}{\longrightarrow} 0$ almost surely.


I posted this question on MSE but have not received any answer so far.

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1 Answer 1

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This statement is false in general.

E.g., let $T=1$ and $p_k:=2^{-k}$ for integers $k=1,2,\dots$, so that $\sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k=1$. Let $A_1,A_2,\dots$ be pairwise disjoint events with respective probabilities $p_1,p_2,\dots$. Let \begin{equation} H_t:=\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1_{A_k}\,2^k\,\sum_{j=0}^{2^k}\Big(1-8^k\Big|t-\frac j{2^k}\Big|\Big)_+, \end{equation} where $u_+:=\max(0,u)$.

Then \begin{equation} E\int_0^1 H_t^2\,dt=\sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k\; (2^k)^2\,2^k \int_0^1 \Big(1-8^k\Big|t-\frac 1{2^k}\Big|\Big)_+^2\,dt =\sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k\; (2^k)^2\,2^k \frac23\,\frac1{8^k}=\frac23<\infty. \end{equation} On the other hand, for all $t\in(0,1]$ we have $H_{t,n}\ge2^n$ on the event $A_n$, which has probability $p_n=\frac1{2^n}$. So, \begin{equation} E\int_0^1 H_{t,n}^2\,dt\ge(2^n)^2\frac1{2^n}\to\infty \end{equation} and hence \begin{equation} E\int_0^1 (H_{t,n}-H_t)^2\,dt\to\infty\ne0 \end{equation} as $n\to\infty$. $\quad\Box$


The problem here is, of course, that the process $(H_t)$ is not bounded (by a nonrandom constant). A standard construction of the stochastic integral -- see e.g. Proposition 2.6 in Ch. 3 of Karatzas, Ioannis; Shreve, Steven (1991), Brownian Motion and Stochastic Calculus, 2nd ed. -- is done a bit differently: first, the integrand process is truncated to obtain a bounded process, and then the truncated, bounded process is approximated by simple, piecewise-constant processes, and thus the original integrand process is approximated by simple ones (in $L^2(\Omega\times[0,T])$).

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  • $\begingroup$ I got that $E\int_0^1 H_t^2 \, dt = \sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k (2^k)^2 \int_0^1 \big [ \sum_{j=0}^{2^k} \big (1- 8^k \big |t-\frac{\color{red}{j}}{2^k} \big| \big)_+ \big ]^2 dt$. Could you explain how you simplify it to $\sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k\; (2^k)^2\,2^k \int_0^1 \Big(1-8^k\Big|t-\frac {\color{red}{1}}{2^k}\Big|\Big)_+^2\,dt =\sum_{k=1}^\infty p_k\; (2^k)^2\,2^k \frac23\,\frac1{8^k}$? $\endgroup$
    – Analyst
    Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 22:56
  • $\begingroup$ I have just found the same statement with the same hypothesis (equation (8.20)) in this note. Could you please have a look at it? $\endgroup$
    – Analyst
    Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 22:59
  • $\begingroup$ @Analyst : The summands in $j$ have mutually disjoint supports. So, they are orthogonal in $L^2[0,1]$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 23:00
  • $\begingroup$ @Analyst : Concerning your second comment: In that note, that is OK -- it is emphasized there that the process is bounded; so, one can use dominated convergence. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29, 2023 at 23:03
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    $\begingroup$ @Analyst : As the example above shows, this will not hold in general without boundedness. Perhaps, it is meant in these latter notes that the process is preliminarily truncated, as discussed in the last paragraph of my answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2023 at 0:43

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