The paper Geometry of diffeomorphism groups, complete integrability and optimal transport mentions the following:
The group $\textrm{Diff}(M)$ carries a natural $L^2$-metric
$\displaystyle \langle\langle u\circ\eta, v\circ\eta\rangle\rangle_{L^2}=\int_{M}\langle u\circ \eta,v\circ \eta\rangle d\mu=\int_{M}\langle u,v\rangle \textrm{Jac}_{\mu}(\eta^{-1})d\mu \tag{2.10}$ where $u,v\in T_{e}\textrm{Diff}(M)$ and $\eta\in \textrm{Diff}(M)$.
...Its significance comes from the fact that a curve $t \to η(t)$ in $\textrm{Diff}(M)$ is a geodesic if and only if $t \to η(t)(p)$ is a geodesic in $M$ for each $p \in M$.
I would like to know why the statement about geodesics holds. The paper does not give proof, so I tried to give proof myself, with no success.
It also feels too good to be true since I feel like the mapping $p\mapsto \eta(t)(p)$ has no guarantee that it is a diffeomorphism.
For what its worth, this statement is somehow removed in the publication.