For most of my (mathematical) life, I believed that there was really no essential difference between set theory without urelements and set theory with urelements. However, while that may be true in certain coarse senses, there are occasions where things genuinely change if urelements are used.
The three big examples I'm aware of are the following:
Independence results over $\mathsf{ZFA}$ are much easier to establish than over $\mathsf{ZF}$. (Of course via Jech–Sochor/Pincus many such independence results can be "ported over" to $\mathsf{ZF}$, but (i) not all can be, (ii) that takes serious work and came much later, and (iii) I think it's still fair to say that the original arguments have a distinct "flavor" of their own.)
When we look at very weak set theories (around the level of $\mathsf{KP}$), there are technical niceties to having urelements around that makes them the "right" choice. Barwise's excellent book Admissible sets and structures includes some discussion of this point. To quote from chapter 1:
- "[O]ne is tempted to make a simplifying mistake. We have first thrown out urelements from $\mathsf{ZF}$ because $\mathsf{ZF}$ is so strong. When we then weaken $\mathsf{ZF}$ to $\mathsf{KP}$ we must remember to reexamine the justification for banning the urelements. Doing so, we discover that the justification has completely disappeared. [… T]he chief advantage [of allowing urelements] is that it allows us to form, for any structure $\mathfrak{M}=\langle M, R_1,\dotsc,R_k\rangle$, a particularly important admissible set $\mathbb{HYP}_\mathfrak{M}$ above $\mathfrak{M}$."
Looking at alternative set theories, the theory $\mathsf{NF}{+}\mathsf{AC}$ is outright and complicatedly inconsistent and the consistency of $\mathsf{NF}$ is still open (Holmes' claimed proof having not yet been fully accepted to the best of my knowledge). However, the respective urelement-allowing variants $\mathsf{NFUC}$ and $\mathsf{NFU}$ are easily proved to be consistent relative to weak set theories.
I'm curious about what other examples might be out there:
What are some examples where it is especially convenient, especially inconvenient, or simply meaningfully different to work with urelements as opposed to working without urelements?
To be clear, I'm really only interested in purely mathematical — maybe "technical" is more appropriate? — considerations here. The question of whether set theory with or without urelements is more "natural" is an interesting one, but not the sort of thing that I'm asking about here. I'm also not asking about historical issues around the choice to disallow urelements (although again that's an interesting topic).