A function $f \in L^1(\mathbb R^n)$ is said to be of bounded variation if there exists a constant $C \geq 0$ such that $$ \int_{\mathbb R^n} f(x) \operatorname{div} \phi(x) \; dx \leq C \sup_{ x \in \mathbb R^n } \lvert\phi(x)\rvert $$ for all compactly supported differentiable vector fields $\phi : \mathbb R^n \rightarrow \mathbb R^n$. The smallest such constant $C$ can be called the total variation of $f$.
I am wondering about the requirement that $f \in L^1(\mathbb R^n)$. For example, we could replace the requirement “$f \in L^1(\mathbb R^n)$” by “$f \in L^\infty(\mathbb R^n)$” and still obtain a reasonable theory.
For example, compactly support smooth functions are essentially bounded and have total variation. The total variation of constant functions is zero, and constant functions are clearly in $L^\infty$ but not $L^1$.
Hence, if consider the subspace of functions in $L^p(\mathbb R^n)$ with bounded variation (defined analogously to above), then at the very least we get non-trivial vector spaces for any $1 \leq p \leq \infty$, and there is no obvious inclusion between those spaces.
Question: Why is $L^1$ usually required? Are there exceptions to this discussed in the literature?
I am aware of the functions of local bounded variation, where the function $f$ is merely expected to be Lebesgue integrable. But that big generalization already seems like a step way too far.
Among the possible reasons I can imagine are:
- Authors working on the subject are only interested in analysis over bounded domains, in which case $f \in L^1$ suffices.
- The (historical) application in elasticity actually prefers $L^1$.
- There are actual mathematical reasons to require $f \in L^1$ that are much less obvious than the simple musings above.