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This question arises as a variation of this question, which was helpfully answered in the negative. It turns out that for my application, a substantially weaker conjecture suffices, which fails to be counterexampled by the answers given in the previous question.

Define $$A^\gamma(K,\delta) := \sup \left\{c_0 : \exists (c_j)_{j=1}^\infty, |c_j| \leq K\,, \lambda\bigg(\Big\{ x \in (0,1/2) : \Big|\textstyle\sum_{j=0}^\infty c_j x^j\Big| > \delta \Big\}\bigg) \leq \gamma\right\},$$ where by $\lambda(S)$ for a set $S \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ we mean the Lebesgue measure of $S$.

Question.

Does there exists $\gamma>0,K>1$ such that $$\limsup_n A^\gamma(K^n,e^{-n}) =0?$$

Relation to Previous Question.

Iosif Pinelis' answer to the above linked question shows that for all $K>1$ there exists some $\gamma<1/2$ such that $$\limsup_n A^\gamma(K^n,e^{-n}) \geq 1.$$ One can verify that the $\gamma$ given by his example goes rapidly to $1/2$ as $K \downarrow 1$. It seems that by taking $\gamma$ small, we should be able to avoid examples such as Iosif Pinelis'.

Thoughts on Possible Paths to a Proof.

First, let's note that $A^\gamma$ is $1$-homogeneous, so that $A^\gamma(CK,C\delta) = C A^\gamma(K,\delta)$. Thus we can rewrite $$A^\gamma(K^n,e^{-n}) = K^n A^\gamma(1, (Ke)^{-n}).$$ Thus it suffices to show that $$A^\gamma(1,\delta) \leq C\delta^{1/N}$$ for some $N$ and $\delta$ small enough, since then, taking $1 < K \leq e^{1/N}$ $$A^\gamma(K^n,e^{-n}) = K^n A^\gamma(1, (Ke)^{-n}) \leq CK^n (Ke)^{-n/N} \leq CK^{-n/N} \to 0.$$

There is a fairly straightforward proof that, for any $\gamma$, $A^\gamma(1,\delta) \to 0$ as $\delta \downarrow 0$, e.g. using weak-* compactness of the unit ball in $\ell^\infty$ applied to the $c_j$ sequences. The proof is entirely non-quantitative, so the above remark reduces the question to giving a good rate for this convergence.

One thought on how one could try to show some quantitative control of $A^\gamma(1,\delta)$ as $\delta \to 0$ is by some sort of interpolation inequality. For any $\gamma, \delta$, we have the $\sup$ almost realized by some function $f_{\gamma,\delta}(x) = \sum_j c_j x^j$, where $$f(0) \geq \frac{1}{2}A^\gamma(1,\delta);\ \ |c_j| \leq 1;\ \ \lambda(\{x : |f(x)| > \delta\})\leq \gamma.$$ Note that the control on the $c_j$ allow us control infinite derivative order norms, in particular we can control $W^{k,\infty}$ norms for every $k$. The fact the $f_{\delta,\gamma}$ is small on a large set allows us to show that "norms" like $\log L$ are small. $$\|f_{\delta,\gamma}\|_{\log L} = \exp\left(\int_0^{1/2} \log |f_{\delta,\gamma}|\right) \leq \exp\left(\gamma\log 2 + (1/2-\gamma) \log \delta\right) \leq 2^\gamma \delta^{1/2-\gamma}.$$ One can similarly show that $L^\epsilon$ "norms" are small for $0<\epsilon <1$.

Thus if we can get an interpolation inequality controlling $L^\infty$, say between an appropriately defined $W^{\infty,\infty}$ norm and a $\log L$ "norm", we'd get the desired bound. Note this looks something like a Gagliardo-Nirenberg interpolation.

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  • $\begingroup$ You are using $|$'s to denote three different things: (i) the phrase "such that"; (ii) the absolute value (or, maybe, the modulus), and (iii) the Lebesgue measure. (You also seem to not have them balanced.) I'd suggest you use three different kinds of notation for these three kinds of things. Also, I suggest that the set $\{ x \in (0,1/2) \mid \big|\sum_j c_j x^j\big| > \delta \}$ be defined separately, to allow an easier grasp of the definition of $A^\gamma(K,\delta)$. Also, I suggest you explain the meaning of the (infinite?) sum $\sum_j c_j x^j$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 17:12
  • $\begingroup$ @IosifPinelis fair points. I tried to clean up the notation somewhat. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 17:28
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    $\begingroup$ Just use two-constant lemma now. You'll see that for a fixed $\gamma$ small $K>1$ work. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 18:04
  • $\begingroup$ @fedja Haven't heard of it before but looked it up, seems to be exactly what I needed. Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 19:47

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This conjecture is correct. Take $K=e$, and let $\gamma\leq 1/4$; we will fix $\gamma$ later.

First we give a crude estimate of $c_0$. Let $g(z)=\sum_{1}^\infty c_nz^n.$ Since $|c_n|\leq e^n$, we obtain $|g(z)|\leq e^n$ for $|z|\leq 1/2$ by the trivial estimate. Then by Cauchy, $|f'(z)|=|g'(z)|\leq 4\cdot e^n,\; |z|\leq 1/4$. Then $$|c_0-e^{-n}|\leq (1/4)\max_{[0,1/4]}|f'|\leq (1/4)4\cdot e^n=e^n,$$ so $|c_0|\leq 1.5\cdot e^n$. Therefore $$|f(z)|\leq |c_0|+|g(z)|\leq 3\cdot e^n,\quad |z|\leq 1/2.$$

Now consider the subharmonic function $$u(z)=\log|f(z)|$$ in the region $D=\{z:|z|<1/2,z\not\in E\},$ where $E=\{ z\in(0,1/2): |f(z)|\leq e^{-n}\}.$ By the Two constants Theorem, $$u(0)\leq -n\omega(0,E,D)+n\omega(0,C,D)+\log 3,\quad\quad\quad (1)$$ where $C=\{ z:|z|=1/2\}$ and $\omega$ is the harmonic measure. Now, according to a theorem of Beurling (Nevanlinna, Analytic functions, Chap. IV, section 84), $\omega(0,E,D)\geq \omega(0,E_0,D_0),$ where $E_0$ is the segment $[\gamma,1/2]$ and $D_0$ is the complement of this segment to the disk $|z|<1/2$.

It is easy to obtain an explicit formula for this $\omega(0,E_0,D_0)$, (see for example Nevanlinna's book), but we only need the fact that it tends to $1$ when $\gamma\to 0$, which is evident. Since $\omega(0,C,D_0)=1-\omega(0,E_0,D_0)$, we can fix $\gamma$ such that $\omega(0,E_0,D_0)>\omega(0,C,D_0)$. Then from the inequality (1) we conclude that $$\log|c_0|=u(0)\to-\infty,\; n\to\infty.$$ This proves the result.

From the explicit expression of $\omega(0,E_0,D_0)$ we can obtain an explicit value of $\gamma$.

Remark. Beurling theorem is not necessary for mere existence of $\gamma$; it is only needed to obtain an explicit value. It is clear without Beurling that $\omega(0,E,D)\to 1$ when $\gamma\to 0$, by an elementary "compactness argument".

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  • $\begingroup$ As $\omega(0,E,D) \to 1$ as $\gamma\to0$, we should be able to take $K$ arbitrarily large, right? That is, for any $K>0$, there is some $\gamma$ sufficiently small such that $A^\gamma(K^n, e^{-n}) \to 0,$ correct? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2022 at 17:46
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    $\begingroup$ @Keefer Rowan: Yes, in fact for every $K$ there exists $\gamma$ such that.... $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2022 at 22:45

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