When is $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{p+\sqrt{p}})$ a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$?

I was motivated by the question that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})$ is a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$. Here is a rough sketch of the proof.

First, note that the polynomial $$f(x)=(x-\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}}) (x+\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})(x-\sqrt{5-\sqrt{5}})(x+\sqrt{5-\sqrt{5}})$$ is irreducible by the Eisenstein irreducibility criterion. So we claim that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})$ is the splitting field of the separable polynomial $f(x)$. It suffices to show that $\sqrt{5-\sqrt{5}}\in\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})$. To do this, we first note that $5+\sqrt{5}$ and hence $\sqrt{5}$ is in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})$.

Then, by noticing that $$\sqrt{5-\sqrt{5}}=\frac{\color{red}{\sqrt{5-1}}\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}}}= \frac{\color{red}2\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}}},\tag{1}$$

we see that $\sqrt{5-\sqrt{5}}$ is in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5+\sqrt{5}})$ as desired.

By the above argument, we see that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{p+\sqrt{p}})$ is a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ when $p-1$ is a square number. (The importance of $p-1$ being a square number can be seen from equation (1)-See the part highlighted in red)

I am wondering if this is both a necessary and sufficient criterion for $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{p+\sqrt{p}})$ to be a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$. In other words, $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{p+\sqrt{p}})$ is a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ if and only if $p$ is prime and $p-1$ is a square number.

Some things that I have noticed regarding this problem:

$p=3$ doesn’t satisfy the suggested criterion and isn’t a Galois extension. See (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4052247/showing-that-mathbbq-sqrt3-sqrt3-is-not-galois)

For general a $p$, $f(x)=x^4-2px^2+(p^2-p)$.

I am not sure if we need $p$ to be prime. The only place where we used $p$ is prime is when we used the Eisenstein irreducibility criterion. But do we really need $f(x)$ to be irreducible?

This is where I am probably getting a bit ahead of myself. But when we say that $p-1$ is a square number, most of us naturally assume that $p$ is in $\mathbb{Z}^+$ and $p-1$ is square in $\mathbb{Z}^+$. But can we further generalise the result by allowing $p$ to be in $\mathbb{Q}$ and $p-1$ be square in $\mathbb{Q}$?