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Suppose $x_i$ come from 2-d standard Normal centered at 0. What is the range of $a$ for which the following iteration converges almost surely?

$$w_{i+1} = w_i-a x_i \langle w_i, x_i \rangle$$

For 1-d, one can write $w_{i+1}^2$ as $w_i^2=w_0^2\prod_i (1-\alpha x_i^2)$, take log and apply central limit theorem. For 2-D, one could use a similar approach, but using matrix logarithm instead of regular logarithm. However, this side-steps some technical details (we have a product of rank-1 matrices, how can you take matrix logarithm of that?) so I'm wondering if the resulting estimate is valid.

In particular, it predicts that iteration converges iff $\alpha \in (0.12131, 0.91861)$, while in simulations, I'm seeing convergence for $\alpha=0.93$ (but divergence for $\alpha=0.94$)

The question is equivalent to finding $\alpha$ such that $C_i$ converges almost surely where

$$C_i=w_i w_i^T$$ $$C_{i+1}=(1-\alpha x_i x_i^T)C_i(1-\alpha x_i x_i^T)$$

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    $\begingroup$ "we have a product of rank-1 matrices, how can you take matrix logarithm of that" -- Actually, the matrices will be full rank almost surely. Rather, the problem with taking the matrix logarithm is that usually the matrix logarithm of the product of matrices is not the sum of the logarithms of the matrices. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 21, 2023 at 1:31

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As you say, the threshold is around $a=0.937087$.

The exact condition for convergence is $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_0^\infty\log(1-2ar^2\cos^2\theta+a^2r^4\cos^2\theta)re^{-r^2/2}\,dr\,d\theta<0. $$ I don't think there will be a clean formula for $a$.

The derivation of the expression is as follows: Let $r_j=\|w_j\|$. The entire problem is rotationally symmetric. Additionally, the operation is linear. Combining these two facts, we have $r_{j+1}=Z_jr_j$ where $(Z_j)$ is an i.i.d sequence of random variables. Taking logarithms, we have that $r_j\to 0$ if $\mathbb E \log Z<0$ and $r_j\to\infty$ if $\mathbb E \log Z>0$.

To compute $\mathbb E\log Z$, suppose without loss of generality that $w_j=(1,0)$. Write $x_{j+1}=(r\cos\theta,r\sin\theta)$ where $r$ is distributed as a Rayleigh random variable and $\theta$ is uniform on $[0,2\pi]$. Then $$ w_{j+1}=(1,0)-a(r\cos\theta,r\sin\theta)r\cos\theta, $$ so that $Z_{j+1}=\|w_{j+1}\|$. The expression for $\mathbb E\log Z_{j+1}$ is then as displayed in the first display equation.

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  • $\begingroup$ It appears to me that this calculation is based on the assumption that some rotational symmetry implies that the norm of a product of matrices is the product of the norm. Is my impression mistaken? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 21, 2023 at 1:23
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    $\begingroup$ @IosifPinelis Nope, it isn't. What it is based upon is that for any vector $v$ the ratio $\|(I-x\otimes x)v\|/\|v\|$ is a random variable whose distribution does not depend on $v$ and those r.v. are independent at different steps. This is a rather clever trick that reduces everything to dimension 1. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Mar 21, 2023 at 3:00
  • $\begingroup$ @fedja : Oh, I see, thank you. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 21, 2023 at 3:33

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