Say that a logic $\mathcal{L}$ is nowhere-negative iff for every $\mathcal{L}$-theory $T$ there is a structure $\mathfrak{A}$ such that $$\mathit{Th}_\mathcal{L}(\mathfrak{A})=\mathit{Ded}_\mathcal{L}(T),$$ where $\mathit{Th}_\mathcal{L}(\mathfrak{A})=\{\varphi\in\mathcal{L}:\mathfrak{A}\models_\mathcal{L}\varphi\}$ is the $\mathcal{L}$-theory of the structure $\mathfrak{A}$ and $\mathit{Ded}_\mathcal{L}(T)=\{\varphi\in\mathcal{L}: T\models_\mathcal{L}\varphi\}$ is the $\mathcal{L}$-deductive-closure of $T$. Basically, $\mathcal{L}$ is nowhere-negative iff every deductively-closed theory is the full theory of some structure.
For example, first-order logic is unsurprisingly non-nowhere-negative: consider any incomplete but deductively closed theory. On the other hand, equational logic is nowhere-negative by the usual proof of the HSP theorem: given a class of structures $\mathbb{K}$ we construct a single structure $\mathcal{A}$ satisfying precisely those equations true in every element of $\mathbb{K}$, and if we apply this to $\mathbb{K}$ = the class of models of some equational theory $T$ then the resulting $\mathcal{A}$ will satisfy all and only the equational sentences provable from $T$.
Re: the name, note that if $\mathcal{L}$ contains sentences $\varphi,\psi$ with nonempty and exactly complementary model classes then $\mathcal{L}$ cannot be nowhere-negative: this is because any structure must satisfy exactly one of $\varphi$ and $\psi$ and neither $\varphi$ nor $\psi$ is in the deductive closure of $\emptyset$, so $\mathit{Ded}_\mathcal{L}(\emptyset)\not=\mathit{Th}_\mathcal{L}(\mathfrak{A})$ for any structure $\mathfrak{A}$.
My question is about the coarse structure of the nowhere-negative fragments of first-order logic:
Question: Is there a ("reasonably natural") maximal nowhere-negative sublogic of first-order logic?
(Actually, the question I'm really interested in is the broader "Is every nowhere-negative sublogic $\mathcal{L}\subseteq\mathsf{FOL}$ contained in a maximal nowhere-negative sublogic of $\mathsf{FOL}$?," but I think that's a bit ambitious.) Note that this is not immediately solved via Zorn's lemma, since the union of a chain of nowhere-negative logics could fail to be nowhere-negative. I'm separately interested in what nowhere-negativity is actually called, since I vaguely remember seeing the same notion with a different name before but I can't track it down at the moment.