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The following problem seems easy at a first glance but I can't see the way to prove it. Actually I don't even know if it's true but it is assumed implicitly in a research paper.

Help highly appreciated.

Given two spd matrices $A$, $B$ with

$x^\top Ax \ge x^\top Bx$

then it follows that $x^\top A^{-1}x \le x^\top B^{-1}x$.

Any ideas?

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  • $\begingroup$ "spd" = "positive semi-definite"?? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 23, 2022 at 14:03
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    $\begingroup$ @SamHopkins - no, I think "PosiTive Semi-Definite" would be PTSD. I think SPD is Symmetric Positive-Definite. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 23, 2022 at 14:08
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    $\begingroup$ @MichaelEngelhardt: ah, okay, I thought it could be based on French or something but that makes more sense. Anyways perhaps the question-asker can clarify. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 23, 2022 at 14:10
  • $\begingroup$ @SamHopkins - Indeed, the OP should clarify. I just have the weakness of not being able to resist a joke. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 23, 2022 at 14:14
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    $\begingroup$ spd = symmetric positive definite. Apologies for the misunderstanding. $\endgroup$
    – Felix
    Commented Jul 25, 2022 at 9:26

2 Answers 2

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The proposed result holds true.

I am assuming throughout that $spd$ means symmetric positive definite and that the matrices $A$ and $B$ are $n$-by-$n$ matrices over $\mathbb{R}$ for some $n > 0$.

Indeed, since $B = P^{\top}P$ for some $P \in GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ by hypothesis (see e.g., Sylvester's law of inertia), we can assume, without loss of generality, that $B = I_n$, the $n$-by-$n$ identity matrix.

Let us assume that $A - B = A - I_n$ is positive semi-definite and let $O$ be an $n$-by-$n$ orthogonal matrix over $\mathbb{R}$ such that $O^{\top}AO$ is diagonal. Clearly, the matrices $O^{\top}(A - I_n)O$ and $O^{\top}(I_n - A ^{-1})O$ are also diagonal. Conjugating then both sides of the identity $A - I_n = A(I_n - A^{-1})$ by $O$, yields immediately that $I_n - A^{-1}$ is positive semi-definite (check the signs of diagonal coefficients on both sides), hence the result.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot. May I ask how you come to the conclusion? We have that $O$ also diagonalizes $A(I_n -A^{-1})$ and that this term is spd. Why is then $(I_n-A^{-1})$ also spd? $\endgroup$
    – Felix
    Commented Jul 25, 2022 at 9:35
  • $\begingroup$ got it - thanks :-) $\endgroup$
    – Felix
    Commented Jul 25, 2022 at 10:12
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The result follows from operator monotonicity of inverse over symmetric positive definite matrices, i.e., $A \succeq B \Rightarrow A^{-1} \preceq B^{-1}$, which is a special case of the Löwner-Heinz theorem. See for example, Theorem 2.6 here.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. This is a bit to abstract for my taste, but it probably also proves the statement. $\endgroup$
    – Felix
    Commented Jul 25, 2022 at 9:29

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