In the proof that Martin's maximum implies (*), the introduction gives the following theorem:
Assume there is a proper class of Woodin cardinals. Then, the following are equivalent:
- $(^*)$
- For any $\Pi_2$ $\mathcal{L}$-sentence $\sigma$, where $\mathcal{L}$ is the language of the structure $(H_{\omega_2}; \in, \mathrm{NS}_{\omega_1}, \mathcal{A})_{\mathcal{A} \in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R}) \cap L(\mathbb{R})}$, if $\sigma$ is $\Omega$-consistent, then $\sigma$ is true.
Now, let's define the axiom $(^*)^+$ to be the conjunction of the following two statements:
- There exists a proper class of Woodin cardinals.
- For any $\mathcal{L}$-sentence $\sigma$, where $\mathcal{L}$ is the language of the structure $(H_{\omega_2}; \in, \mathrm{NS}_{\omega_1}, \mathcal{A})_{\mathcal{A} \in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R}) \cap L(\mathbb{R})}$, if $\sigma$ is $\Omega$-consistent, then $\sigma$ is true.
Namely, the restriction to $\Pi_2$-sentences (statements of the form $\forall x \exists y \varphi(x,y)$) is removed. Now, here's my question.
Is $(^*)^+$ inconsistent? If it is consistent (assuming the consistency of certain large cardinal assumptions), then is it equiconsistent with the regular axiom $(^*)^+$, or strictly stronger?