Note: This is a refinement of a previous problem.
Let $f \in L^1 (\mathbb R)$. Suppose $g_n \in L^1 (\mathbb R)$ are a sequence of positive functions.
Define, for each $n$, the function $f_n$ by
$$f_n (x) := \frac{1}{2g_n (x)} \int_{x - g_n (x)}^{x + g_n (x)} f(y) \, dy.$$
Question: Is it true that if $g_n \to 0$ in $L^1$ strong, then $f_n \to f$ in weak $L^1$ norm?
Remarks:
Yuval Peres has shown in the linked post that the implication $g_n \to 0$ in $L^1$ $\Rightarrow$ $f_n \to f$ in $L^1$ does not generally hold.
In fact it is possible that none of the $f_n$ are even in $L^1$. As he points out, this is related to the fact that the Hardy-Littlewood maximal function of $f$ is not in $L^1$, and one can capture the behaviour of the maximal function adequately.