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Let $\Omega$ be a bounded domain in $R^N$ and suppose $\gamma$ is some smooth bounded function in $\Omega$. Let $ -\Delta \phi_0 = \lambda_0 \phi_0 $ in $ \Omega$ with $ \phi_0=0$ on $ \partial \Omega$ denote the first eigenpair and we suppose $ \sup_\Omega \phi_0=1$. Let $ \phi_\epsilon>0$ denote a positive solution of $$-\Delta \phi_\epsilon + \epsilon \gamma \phi_\epsilon = \lambda_\epsilon \phi_\epsilon$$ in $ \Omega$ with zero BC and so $(\lambda_\epsilon, \phi_\epsilon)$ is the first eigenpair and lets normalize so $ \sup_\Omega \phi_\epsilon=1$. I can show that $ \phi_\epsilon \rightarrow \phi_0$ directly, but I would like some better asymptotics. I realize this is not a research level question.

So I define $(\psi_\epsilon, \lambda^\epsilon)$ via $ \lambda_\epsilon = \lambda_0 + \epsilon \phi_1 + \epsilon \psi_\epsilon$ and $ \lambda_\epsilon = \lambda_0 + \lambda_1 \epsilon + \epsilon \lambda^\epsilon$. So once we determine $ \phi_1, \lambda_1$ then $ \psi_\epsilon$ and $ \lambda^\epsilon$ are determined. Lets assume we can show that $ \lambda^\epsilon \rightarrow 0$. Assume $ \psi_\epsilon \rightarrow 0$ (at least for now) we can see that $ (\lambda_1, \phi_1)$ should satisfy $$ -\Delta \phi_1 - \lambda_0 \phi_1 = \lambda_1 \phi_0 - \gamma \phi_0,$$ and so we pick $ \lambda_1$ such that the right hand side is orthogonal to $ \phi_0$. Then we can find a $ \phi_1$ that solves this. Now we can pick $ \phi_1$ orthogonal to $ \phi_0$ or we can choose it another way (i will leave that open for now).

Now we write out the equation for $ \psi_\epsilon$. Here is where I get confused. If we knew $ \psi_\epsilon$ was orthogonal to $ \phi_0$ then we could try and show it must converge to zero uniformly; if not then we can probably find something in the kernel of $L$ where $ L(\zeta) = -\Delta \zeta - \lambda_0 \zeta$ which is nonzero and perpendicular to $ \phi_0$; a contradiction. But this is the part I just can't seem to see.

Anyhow comments would be appreciated.

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  • $\begingroup$ I have trouble understanding what the question is aiming at. Why are the usual perturbation theory expressions unsatisfactory, i.e., $\lambda_{\epsilon } = \lambda_{0} + \epsilon \langle \phi_{0} | \gamma | \phi_{0} \rangle + \ldots $, etc. $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2022 at 3:58
  • $\begingroup$ I assume the usual perturbation theory expressions are satisfactory (but I don't know them hence...). I do realize I didn't write out the equation for $ \psi_\epsilon$ and hence its not at all clear what I even asking. I will add the rest to make a very specific queststion. $\endgroup$
    – Math604
    Commented May 20, 2022 at 4:13
  • $\begingroup$ Just to add the usual expression for $\phi_{\epsilon } $, since it may be useful: $\phi_{\epsilon } = \phi_{0} + \epsilon \sum_{k\neq 0} \frac{\langle \phi_{k} | \gamma | \phi_{0} \rangle }{\lambda_{0} - \lambda_{k} } \phi_{k} + \ldots $ where $(\lambda_{k} ,\phi_{k} )$ are all the other unperturbed solutions. $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2022 at 13:47
  • $\begingroup$ thank you very much for your answer. I ended up writing it out term by term and solving...but i wanted to do some abstract thing to get the remainder term $ \psi_\epsilon$ and $ \lambda^\epsilon$; which I managed to do today. My mistake was that I wasn't treating $ \lambda^\epsilon$ as 'free'. I can attempt to write out some details of what I did. thanks for your comments; they helped. $\endgroup$
    – Math604
    Commented May 20, 2022 at 23:14

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