2
$\begingroup$

When is it true that a map of $E_{\infty}$-ring spectra $R \to S$ is etale (in Lurie's sense) if and only if, $\operatorname{TAQ}^R(S) = 0$ and $ \pi_*(R)\otimes_{\pi_0(R)} \pi_0(S) = \pi_*(S)$?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ What is the definition of etal for ring spectra? $\endgroup$
    – GSM
    Apr 20, 2022 at 23:21

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.