I have seen that there is a lot of work on studying the smoothable component of the Hilbert scheme of points $\textit{Hilb}^n(X)$ of some variety $X$. The main results are that if $\dim X \leq 2$ then all 0-dimensional subschemes of $X$ are smoothable and in other case the picture becomes much more complicated.
I also know that $Z \subset X$ is in the smoothable component if and only if it is smoothable in the deformation theory-sense, ie that there exists a flat family of smooth (equivalently, reduced) schemes with limit $Z$.
However, it I am having trouble in finding some consequences of smoothability.
Why is smoothability of a (0 dimensional) subscheme $Z$ "good" (apart from the obvious reason that smoothable is a weakening of smooth)? Fell free to answer only for $X= \mathbb P^m$
