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Given a connected smooth manifold $M$ of dimension $m>1$, points $p_1,\dots,p_n\in M$ and positive values $\{d_{i,j};1\leq i<j\leq n\}$ satisfying the strict triangle inequalities $d_{i,j}<d_{i,k}+d_{k,j}$,

Can we give $M$ a complete riemannian metric $g$ so that $d_g(p_i,p_j)=d_{i,j}$, where $d$ is the geodesic distance?

This can fail in dimension $2$, as shown in the answer by André Henriques. I'm pretty sure it has to be true for $m\geq3$, but I have not been able to prove it.

Some comments:

  • This occurred to me while answering Equidistant points on a compact Riemannian manifold, my answer to that question contains the ideas I tried for $m\geq3$.

  • By homogeneity of manifolds you can suppose the points $P_1,\dotsc,P_n$ are any set of $n$ points of $M$, and using that it is not hard to reduce the problem to the case of $M$ being diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^m$. In particular if you prove it for $\mathbb{R}^3$ you will have proved it for any manifold of dimension $\geq 3$.

  • One of the first ideas which come to mind is trying to somehow imbed $M$ in $\mathbb{R}^N$ for some big $N$, but triangle inequalities are not sufficient for a finite set to be isometrically imbedded in some $\mathbb{R}^N$.

  • What if we change the strict triangle inequalities for the usual ones?

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  • $\begingroup$ Aren't the second and third bullet points kind of at odds with each other? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 17:51
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    $\begingroup$ @zibadawatimmy In the third one I mean $\mathbb{R}^m$ as a differentiable manifold (so, without having decided any metric in $\mathbb{R}^m$ yet). I'll edit the question to make that clear. $\endgroup$
    – Saúl RM
    Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 18:32
  • $\begingroup$ Your link that seemed intended to go to a question went to the answer, so I changed the link to point to the question, and linked separately to your answer. I hope that was all right. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 15:52
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice thanks, I hadn't even noticed there were separate links for questions and answers $\endgroup$
    – Saúl RM
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 16:04

2 Answers 2

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It is not possible to find $5$ points $x_1,\ldots,x_5$ on a genus zero Riemannian 2-manifold (a sphere) such that $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for all $i,j$.

The reason is that the complete graph $K_5$ is not planar.

Assume by contradiction that we have $5$ points $x_1,\ldots,x_5$ with $d(x_i,x_j)=1$. Up to permuting the points, we may assume that the minimal geodesic connecting $x_1$ and $x_3$ crosses the minimal geodesic connecting $x_2$ and $x_4$.

Let $y$ be the point at which these two geodesics intersect. Then \begin{align*} 2&=d(x_1,x_3)+d(x_2,x_4)\\ &=d(x_1,y)+d(y,x_3)+d(x_2,y)+d(y,x_4)\\ &=\tfrac12\big((d(x_1,y)+d(y,x_2))\\ &\qquad(d(x_2,y)+d(y,x_3))+\\ &\qquad(d(x_3,y)+d(y,x_4))+\\ &\qquad(d(x_4,y)+d(y,x_1)) \big)\\ &\ge\tfrac12\big(d(x_1,x_2)+d(x_2,x_3)+d(x_3,x_4)+d(x_4,x_1)\big)=2 \end{align*} with equality iff $y$ lies on all six geodesics (between $x_i$ and $x_j$ $\forall i,j\in\{1,2,3,4\})$. But if $y$ lies on all six geodesics, then these six geodesics are all part of a single geodesic line (i.e. the points are "aligned"), which is clearly impossible.

The crucial thing that I'm using here is the fact that geodesics admit unique extensions. If the ambient space was a graph, then my argument for deriving a contradiction wouldn't work as I wouldn't be able to conclude that the points are "aligned".


In higher dimensions, the answer is yes.

Take the complete graph $K_n$ on your set of points. Embed it in $M$. Then put a metric on $M$ that agrees with your desired metric in a neighbourhood of the graph, and which is extremely huge away from the graph. Then minimal geodesics will essentially follow the graph.

This solves the problem "up to $\varepsilon$", as the geodesics don't exactly follow the graph, but do so only approximately.

To finish the argument, do the same thing in families, and invoke some version of the intermediate value theorem. Here's how the argument goes. Let $D$ be the space of metrics on your fixed finite set. Instead of doing the above construction for a single choice $d\in D$ of distances between the points $x_i$, imagine that we adapt it to instead construct a family of Riemannian metrics on $M$ parametrised by the space $D$. Starting from $d\in D$, the geodesic distance between the $x_i$ produces another element $d'\in D$. So we get a self-map $D\to D$ which is $\varepsilon$-away from the identity map on $D$. Now, $D$ is itself a manifold, and any self-map that's $\varepsilon$-away from the identity is surjective.

[added later: the answer is no]
Error in the above argument: $D$ is in fact a manifold with boundary. My argument works for metrics $d\in D\setminus \partial D$. I.e., metrics where the triangle inequality holds strictly.

A counterexample is provided by the metric on $\{x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4\}$ given by $d(x_1,x_i)=1$, $d(x_i,x_j)=2$ (where $i,j\in\{2,3,4\}$)

[added even later: all is good]
Ha ha! I hadn't noticed that you had assumed the strict triangle inequality to hold. So all is good, and this is a valid argument.

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  • $\begingroup$ Wouldn't it be possible for the distances to be $1$ if the geodesics cross just in the middle? There will surely be some contradiction along these lines for $m=2$ though. $\endgroup$
    – Saúl RM
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 11:08
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    $\begingroup$ I find it amusing to refer to a 2-sphere as "genus zero Riemannian 2-manifold" (actually I've even misread it as "genus 2 Riemann surface" for several minutes). $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 11:16
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    $\begingroup$ The counterexample in higher dimensions doesn't have the strict triangle inequality, and your answer seems to show that it works in dimension at least 3 for metrics with the strict triangle inequality. $\endgroup$
    – Will Sawin
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 14:49
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    $\begingroup$ To show that a map $f:\mathbb R^n\to \mathbb R^n$ satisfying $d(x,f(x))<1$ contains the point $0$ in its image, use that the map $f(x)/\|f(x)\|$ from the unit sphere to itself has degree one (because it's homotopic to the identity). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 15:03
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    $\begingroup$ @DanielAsimov He is talking about a surface of genus $0$, not a torus. For the torus the same reasoning can be applied using $8$ equidistant points instead of $5$ (see this) $\endgroup$
    – Saúl RM
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 19:53
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Yes if $m\ge 2$.

Let us construct a metric graph $\Gamma$ by connecting vertices $p_1,\dots,p_n$ by edges with lengths $m_{ij}$. Take its tiny tubular neighborhood and observe its surface has a nearly isometric copy of $\Gamma$; the edges are assumed to be minimizing. We can also assume that embedding is stretching all edges slightly.

We may assume that each edge runs in a flat part so by conformal change, we can make $\Gamma$ isometric.

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    $\begingroup$ I have some questions. Here you are taking $M$ to be the tubular neighborhood, right? In that case how does that prove the theorem for, for example, $M=\mathbb{R}^2$? Also, is it clear that stretching an edge between $2$ points will not affect distances between the rest of the points, or that we can stretch them in the right way? (it is there where I need the strict inequalities and have problems with the details) $\endgroup$
    – Saúl RM
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 1:13
  • $\begingroup$ The 2-manifold constructed by Anton Petrunin has the wrong topology. I think we can fix that problem by adding some two-handles on which the Riemannian metric is huge (so that shortest geodesics will never want to wander in these two-handles). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 10:32
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    $\begingroup$ I take back what I wrote. My idea doesn't work. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 10:53
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    $\begingroup$ This answers the question with the quantifiers in the other order: given a set of distances, you can find an embedding of the points into some surface with the correct distances. Clearly the existence of non-planar graphs shows that the converse is false. $\endgroup$
    – HJRW
    Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 12:30
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    $\begingroup$ Right, if you fix genus, then the answer is no --- it follows from the answer of André Henriques. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 11, 2022 at 19:54

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