Let $A$ be a finite-dimensional algebra over a field $F$. A representation $M$ of $A$ is called absolutely irreducible if $M\otimes_FE$ is irreducible as a representation of $A\otimes_FE$ for all field extensions $E$ over $F$.
A field $F$ is said to be a splitting field of $A$ if any irreducible representation of $A$ is absolutely irreducible.
There are some results on splitting fields. For example, suppose that $F$ is a splitting field of $A$. Then any field extension $E$ over $F$ is a splitting field, and moreover, irreducible representations of $A$ are in one-to-one correspondence with irreducible representations of $A\otimes_FE$ via $S\mapsto S\otimes_FE$.
Conversely, suppose that $A$ is an $F$-algebra and $E$ (over $F$) is a splitting field of $A$. Then $F$ is a splitting field if and only if irreducible representations of $A$ are in one-to-one correspondence with irreducible representations of $A\otimes_FE$ via $S\mapsto S\otimes_FE$.
Now suppose that $A$ is an $F$-algebra and $E$ (over $F$) is a splitting field of $A$. My question is that, if we only know that every irreducible representation of $A\otimes_FE$ is equal to $S\otimes_FE$ for some irreducible representation $S$ of $A$, can we conclude that $F$ is also a splitting field of $A$? Notice that we do not assume that $S\otimes_FE$ is an irreducible representation of $A\otimes_FE$ for every irreducible representation $S$ of $A$.