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I was looking at Nicolaescu's Lectures on the Geometry of Manifolds (3rd edition). In Theorem 10.2.29 he presents (without proof) the following inequality:

For $m \geq 1, p \geq 1, 0 < r \leq R$ there exists a $C > 0$ s.t. for every $j < m, \epsilon >0$ and $ u \in W^{m, p}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ supported on $B_R$: \begin{equation} \| u \|_{j, p, \mathbb{R}^n} \leq C \left( \epsilon \|u\|_{m, p, \mathbb{R}^n} + \epsilon^{-j/(m-j)} \|u\|_{0, p, B_r} \right) \end{equation} Note that the last norm is taken over $B_r$, not $B_R$. (Actually the book says "$\epsilon^{-j(m-j)}$" in the second summand but believe this is a mistake. There is also some talk about picking cutoff functions but I don't think that's relevant to the main point.)

The author references Adams and Fournier's book on Sobolev spaces for a proof. Indeed Theorem 5.12 of that book is a very similar result: For a sufficiently nice open set $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ it gives a bound \begin{equation} \| u \|_{j, p, \Omega} \leq C \left( \epsilon \| u\|_{m, p, \Omega} + \epsilon^{-j/(m-j)} \|u\|_{0, p, \Omega_\epsilon}\right) \end{equation}

for $u \in W^{m, p}(\Omega)$. However here $\Omega_\epsilon$ is only some mystery subset of $\Omega$ whose closure lies in $\Omega$ and which depends on $\epsilon$.

My question is how/if you can get the first inequality from the second given that the second one offers no control on $\Omega_\epsilon$.

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  • $\begingroup$ I've moved this question from math.stackexchange (and deleted the question there). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2022 at 0:07
  • $\begingroup$ I am slightly confused, the proof of the first inequality (Nicolaescu version) points to the second inequality (Adams/Fournier book), yet you ask how to to get the second inequality from the first. Is that a mix up or actually the correct question? $\endgroup$
    – Hannes
    Commented Jan 12, 2022 at 15:42
  • $\begingroup$ @Hannes Oh that's a mistake, thanks for pointing it out. I fixed it. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2022 at 21:50
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe I am missing something, but since $u$ is assumed to be supported in $B_R$, the $\mathbb{R}^n$ norms are the same as $B_R$ norms, and in the quoted theorem, the $\Omega_\varepsilon$ norm is surely bounded by the $\Omega$ norm, so with $\Omega = B_R$ this is it? $\endgroup$
    – Hannes
    Commented Jan 13, 2022 at 7:42
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    $\begingroup$ The first inequality has a $r$, not $R$ in the last term. Nicolaescu is basically claiming that the $(j, p)$-norm is controlled by $\epsilon$ times the $(m, p)$ norm plus $\epsilon^{...}$ times the norm on any compact subdomain. The result from Adams-Fournier only says some compact subdomain which might even depend on $\epsilon$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 13, 2022 at 8:18

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