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Let $(X, \lVert \cdot \rVert_X)$, $(Y, \lVert \cdot \rVert_Y)$ be two Banach spaces.

A function $P \colon X \to Y$ such that there exists $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that for all $i \in \{ 0, \ldots, n \}$ we have an $i$-linear bounded map $T_i \colon X^i \to Y$ such that: \begin{equation} \forall x \in X \quad P(x) = \sum_{i=0}^n T_i( \underbrace{ x, \ \ldots, \ x}_{i \text{ times}}) \end{equation} will be called an $n$-th degree polynomial. Note that here we allow $T_0$ to take any constant value.

We will say that the function $f \colon U \to Y$, where $U \subseteq X$, is $n$-approximable at $x \in U$ if there exists an $n$-th degree polynomial $P$ such that: \begin{equation} \lVert f(y) - P(y) \rVert_Y \in \omicron( \rVert y-x \rVert_X^n) \end{equation}


Question:

Let us suppose that $f \colon U \to Y$, where $U \subseteq X$, is open, is $n$-approximable at every point of its domain. What can be said about its regularity?


For example, since $1$-approximability at some point is equivalent to being Fréchet differentiable at that point, for $n=1$ we would get that $f \in D^1(U;Y)$, i.e., $f$ is differentiable at every point of its domain.


I would also be interested whether there are some results in more special cases, for example, when $X$ is finite-dimensional, or even when $X = \mathbb{R}$.


Note:

I think I might have an example of function $f \colon \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ which is $n$-approximable for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$ but it isn't in $C^1(\mathbb{R})$.

Let $h \in C^\infty( \mathbb{R})$ be a convex non-negative, non-zero function such that its Taylor expansion at $0$ consists of only $0$. Now, I think there is a function $f \in C^\infty( \mathbb{R} \setminus \{0 \})$ (so it is $n$-approximable on this set for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$) and such that for some sequences $a_n, b_n \to 0$ we have $f'( a_n) = 1$ and $f'(b_n) = -1$, which also satisfies $-h(x) \leq f(x) \leq h(x)$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ (so it is $n$-approximable at $0$ for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$).


Question 2:

Given the above note, I would like to ask a somewhat related question. Is there some notion of continuity of polynomials $T_i$ (viewed as a function of a single variable), which would give us a similar notion of regularity as $C^n$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$?

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  • $\begingroup$ I have no idea (too old ...) but have you already tried some "Taylor inspired" obvious questions like: does $n+1$-approx. imply $n$-approx. ? For a differentiable $f$, are there implications between "$f$ is 2-approx." and "$f'$ is 1-approx. i.e. differentiable"? $\endgroup$
    – NameNo
    Commented Jan 7, 2022 at 21:17
  • $\begingroup$ $(n+1)$-approximability implies $n$-approximability for any $n\in \mathbb{N}$. If $f \colon U \to Y$ is $(n+1)$-approximable at $x\in X$, then $f(y) = P(y) + \omicron( \lVert y-x \rVert_X^{n+1})$, where $P$ is an $(n+1)$-th order polynomial. Therefore, there exists $(n+1)$-linear bounded map $T \colon X^{n+1} \to Y$ such that $X \ni y \mapsto P(y) - T(y, \ldots, y)$ is an $n$-th degree polynomial. By boundedness of $T$ we have $y \mapsto T(y) \in O( \lVert y-x \rVert_X^{n+1}) \subseteq \omicron(\lVert x-y \rVert_X^n)$ and $T(0, \ldots, 0) = 0$ and $P-T$ $n$-approximates $f$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 7, 2022 at 21:45
  • $\begingroup$ Does 2-approx. (in a point or on a open set) imply strong differentiabilty (on the same set)? In the sense of mathoverflow.net/questions/404397/… $\endgroup$
    – NameNo
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 4:52
  • $\begingroup$ Have you looked in Federer's "Geometric Measure Theory"? I remember there being some discussion of this sort of thing shortly before the discussion of the Whitney extension theorem (which you may have come across already if you're thinking about things like this). $\endgroup$
    – DCM
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 13:09
  • $\begingroup$ I haven't done that yet, thank you for the recommendation! $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 13:47

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