I am looking for a short proof of the fact that $\zeta(z)\neq 0$ for $\Re z>a$ implies the prime number theorem with an error bound $O(x^{a+\varepsilon})$ for any $\varepsilon>0$, which would be as elementary in spirit as Newman's proof of the PNT.
"Morally", it follows from the Mellin transform formula $$ \psi(x)=-\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\Re s=\sigma}\frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)}x^s \frac{ds}{s}=-\frac{x^\sigma}{2\pi}\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{\zeta'(\sigma+it)}{\zeta(\sigma+it)}e^{it\log x}\frac{dt}{\sigma+it}, $$
in which one then shifts the line of integration from $\sigma>1$ to $\sigma=a+\varepsilon$, picking up a pole at $s=1$ in the process. However, to rigorously do such shifting one seems to need (at least) estimates of $\zeta'/\zeta$ on the horizontal sides of the rectangle, which I don't see immediately how to obtain just from the non-vanishing of $\zeta$ and its simple properties.
The proofs I have seen in the literature (e. g. in the lecture notes of Elkies or in Edwards book) seem to use the Hadamard product representation of $\zeta$, the related series representation for $\zeta'/\zeta$, and the zero density estimates, and therefore, eventually, the functional equation.
Does an elementary proof of this fact (and, in particular, of the implication between the two forms of Riemann hypothesis) exist? Or is it known to be impossible, in the sense that it genuinely depends on the functional equation? E. g., are there convincing examples where the above "contour shifting" fails?