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Consider the following sum over partitions of $n$:

$$ S(n)=\sum_{\substack {j_1,\dots,j_n\geq 0\\j_1+2j_2+\dots+nj_n=n}} \prod_{t=1}^n \frac{1}{j_t!t^{j_t}}f_t(j_1,\dots,j_t),$$

where

$$ f_t(j_1,\dots,j_t)=\begin{cases}\frac{j_t}{j_t+1}\,&\textrm{if } j_1+2j_2+\dots+(t-1)j_{t-1}=t-1 \\1 \,&\textrm{otherwise}\end{cases}.$$

I have strong numerical evidence that

$$ S(n)=\frac{1}{n+1},$$

but I cannot prove it, I was wondering if anyone could give me ideas.

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Some observations: I wasn't able to compute it using a simple generating function, since I would need $f_t(j_1,\dots,j_t)$ to be a function only of $j_t$.

The function $$f(j_1,\dots, j_n)=\prod_{t=1}^n f_t(j_1,\dots,j_t)$$ can also be intepreted as a function of the cycle structure of a permutation depending on which "subpartitions" $j_1,\dots, j_n$ contains, or on the invariant subsets of $\{1,\dots, n\}$ under the permutations with the cycle structure given by the partition. $S(n)$ can be seen as the average of $f$ over the permutation group, since the $\prod_{t=1}^n \frac{1}{j_t!t^{j_t}}$ is the probability of drawing a permutation with $j_k$ $k-$cycles in its decomposition.

Ideally, I would like to compute, or at least bound

$$ S(n,x)=\sum_{\substack {j_1,\dots,j_n\geq 0\\j_1+2j_2+\dots+nj_n=n}} \prod_{t=1}^n \frac{x^{j_t}}{j_t!t^{j_t}}f_t(j_1,\dots,j_t),$$

for $x>0$, but I don't have a good conjecture on the form of this sum, except for $x=1$.

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    $\begingroup$ The easy bounds are $\frac{x^n}{(n-1)!(n+1)} \le S(n, x) \le \binom{x-1+n}{n} - \frac{x^n}{(n+1)!}$, since the coefficient of $x^n$ is given by the term with $j_1 = n$ and the rest of the upper bound follows from $f_t(j_1, \ldots, j_t) \le 1$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 12, 2021 at 18:17
  • $\begingroup$ @PeterTaylor thank you for the comment! I had only found the first term of this upper bound until now. I unfortunately need an upper bound that decays at least as $1/n$. I'm hoping that whatever technique allows to show the closed form for $x=1$ might shed light on how to compute or upper bound the other cases. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 13, 2021 at 7:48
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    $\begingroup$ Any ideas from the answer to this question? mathoverflow.net/questions/224154/… as well as some applications on this blog post linked to in the above answer? qchu.wordpress.com/2009/06/24/… $\endgroup$
    – Suvrit
    Commented Jul 14, 2021 at 18:24
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    $\begingroup$ Sage code checking the claim for all $n \leq 45$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 16, 2021 at 22:33
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    $\begingroup$ See the earlier comment for my current belief about the lowest order. The $O(x^{\lfloor n/2 \rfloor})$ was a statement about how far I believe the terms given to be accurate. E.g. for $n = 6$ there is a discrepancy from the given value in the $x^3$ term. Also, to report the little further progress I've made, in the polynomials in $n$ giving the coefficients of $x^{n-i}$ the first term appears to be $(2i-1)!!$ and the second one appears to have a closed expression in terms of factorials and double-factorials, but the third one doesn't. I suspect it's a sum of two or more such expressions. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 23, 2021 at 13:56

2 Answers 2

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Consider the generating functions $$ R_k(u) = \sum_{j_1,\ldots,j_k\geq 0} u^{j_1 + 2 j_2 + \cdots + k j_k} \prod_{t=1}^k \frac 1{j_t! t^{j_t}} f_t(j_1,\ldots,j_t). $$ I will prove by induction on $k$ that $$ R_k(u) = \frac 1 u + (1-\frac 1u) \exp(u+\frac {u^2}2+\cdots+\frac {u^k}k) = \frac {u^k}{k+1} + O(u^{k+1}). $$

Note that the first formula implies the second one. Indeed, we have $$ (1-\frac 1u) \exp(u+\frac {u^2}2+\cdots+\frac {u^k}k+\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}+\cdots) = (1-\frac 1u) \exp(-\ln(1-u)) = -\frac 1u. $$ Terms with $u^{k+2}$ and higher do not contribute to $u^k$ and lower, so we get $$ (1-\frac 1u) \exp(u+\frac {u^2}2+\cdots+\frac {u^k}k+\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}) = -\frac 1u +O(u^{k+1}) $$ and $$ (1-\frac 1u) \exp(u+\frac {u^2}2+\cdots+\frac {u^k}k) = -\frac 1u \exp(-\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}) +O(u^{k+1}) = -\frac 1u +\frac {u^k}{k+1}+O(u^{k+1}). $$

The base of induction $k=1$ is rather easy, we get $$R_1 = \sum_{j\geq 0}\frac {u^j}{j!} \frac j{j+1}$$ $$=\exp(u) - \sum_{j\geq 0}\frac {u^j}{(j+1)!} = \exp(u) + \frac {\exp(u)-1}u$$ and the statement follows.

To prove the induction step $k\to (k+1)$ observe that $$ R_{k+1}(u) = R_k(u) \exp(\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}) - u^k( {\rm Coeff.~of~}R_k{\rm~at~}u^k) \Big(\sum_{j\geq 0} \frac {u^{j(k+1)}}{(j+1)! (k+1)^j}\Big) $$ (using the induction assumption) $$= R_k(u) \exp(\frac{u^{k+1}}{k+1}) -\frac {u^k}{k+1} \Big(\frac{\exp(\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1})-1}{\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}}\Big) $$ $$ =(R_k(u)-\frac 1u)\exp(\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}) + \frac 1u $$ $$ =\frac 1 u + (1-\frac 1u) \exp(u+\frac {u^2}2+\cdots+\frac {u^{k+1}}{k+1}). $$

It remains to observe that the coefficient of $R_n(u)$ at $u^n$ is exactly the original formula.

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  • $\begingroup$ I have not tried to work with the $S(n,x)$. Presumably, the method will still provide something, but I don't know how explicit it will be. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 17, 2021 at 23:15
  • $\begingroup$ More generally, it seems that $$R_k(u) = \sum_{d=k}^{2k} \frac{u^d}{d+1} + O(u^{2k+1}).$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 18, 2021 at 16:04
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, I noticed that. The point is that only "linear" terms in the exponentials contribute. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 18, 2021 at 18:51
  • $\begingroup$ @MaxAlekseyev: Your "More generally" claim easily follows from Lev's proof, because if we set $f := \sum_{d=1}^k \dfrac{u^d}{d!}$ and $g := \sum_{d=k+1}^\infty \dfrac{u^d}{d!}$, then $f+g = -\log\left(1-u\right)$ and therefore $\exp\left(f+g\right) = \dfrac{1}{1-u}$, so that $\exp f \cdot \exp g = \exp\left(f+g\right) = \dfrac{1}{1-u}$ and therefore $\left(1-u\right) \exp f = \dfrac{1}{\exp g} = \exp\left(-g\right) \equiv 1-g \mod u^{2k+2}$ (since $g$ is divisible by $u^{k+1}$, and thus $\left(-g\right)^i \equiv 0 \mod u^{2k+2}$ for all $i \geq 2$). The rest you can figure out easily :) $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 18, 2021 at 21:45
  • $\begingroup$ Nice proof, Lev! You can probably start your induction at $k=0$, though. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 18, 2021 at 21:50
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This is just an extended comment providing an alternative view at $S(n)$, which (I hope) may lead to a solution.

Notice that $f_t(j_1,j_2,\dots,j_t) = 1-\frac{\delta_{j,t}}{1+j_t}$, where $$\delta_{j,t} := \big[j_1+2j_2+\dots+(t-1)j_{t-1} = t-1\big]$$ is an Iverson bracket.

Let $\bar n:=\{1,2,\dots,n\}$ and for a given partition exponents $j=(j_1,\dots,j_n)$ with $j_1 + 2j_2+\dots+nj_n=n$, define $J(j) := \{t\in\bar n\,:\,\delta_{j,t}=1\}$. Then \begin{split} (n+1)! S(n)&=(n+1)!\sum_{j:\ j_1 + 2j_2+\dots+nj_n=n} \prod_{t=1}^n \frac{1}{j_t!t^{j_t}} \sum_{T\subseteq J(j)} (-1)^{|T|} \prod_{t\in T} \frac1{j_t+1} \\ &= \sum_{T\subseteq \bar n} (-1)^{|T|} \sum_{j:\ j_1 + 2j_2+\dots+nj_n=n\atop J(j)\supseteq T} \prod_{t=1}^n \frac{(n+1)!}{(j_t + [t\in T])!\,t^{j_t}}. \end{split} The last formula may be viewed as application of the inclusion-exclusion principle under a suitable combinatorial interpretation of its terms, which then would likely imply the needed $(n+1)!S(n)=n!$ out of the box. Unfortunately, I was not able to find such an interpretation so far, but have a gut feeling it's out there.

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