As the title suggests, I am currently trying to understand Chebotarev's original proof of his density theorem, based on the proof in the appendix here. I am fully on-board with the cyclotomic extension case (which is essentially just a slightly more generalised form of Dirichlet's theorem). However, I am having difficulties with the reductions.
Specifically, in the case of an abelian extension, we pick some prime $m \nmid \Delta_{K/\mathbb{Q}}$ and a primitive $m^{th}$ root of unity. The Galois group of the extension $K(\zeta)/F$ then decomposes as $$ \text{Gal}(K(\zeta)/F) \cong \text{Gal}(K/F) \times \text{Gal}(F(\zeta)/F) =: G \times H$$ by restricting the automorphisms of $K(\zeta)$ to the respective subfields. If we now consider a Frobenius substitution (a.k.a. Artin symbol) $(\sigma, \tau) \in G \times H$ and add the condition that $[K : F] \mid \text{ord}(\tau)$ then we find that $\langle (\sigma, \tau) \rangle \cap G \times \{1\} = \{(1,1)\}$. This is because if $$(\sigma, \tau)^k = (\sigma^k, 1)$$ then it means that $\text{ord}(\tau) \mid k$. By transitivity, it follows that $[K : F] \mid k$ as well and so $\sigma^k=1$, as claimed.
Now we arrive at my problem. Stevenhagen and Lenstra claim that this intersection property means that the fixed field $L=K(\zeta)^{\langle (\sigma, \tau)\rangle}$ satisfies $L(\zeta) = K(\zeta)$, so that $K(\zeta) / L$ is an intermediate cyclotomic extension. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but I simply don't see why this is true.
Question: Why does $L(\zeta) = K(\zeta)$?
If anyone is familiar with this proof, I would also love to better understand the counting argument which reduces the general extension case to the cyclic extension case. I know a proof using representation theory of finite groups, but I feel that this combinatorial argument is likely more elementary.
Edit: Thanks to alpoge's excellent answer, I now understand all the details of the abelian extension case, so all that remains is the counting argument to reduce from the general case to the abelian case. I thought I should add that I looked at the reference to Lang's Algebraic Number Theory, but their nod towards an actual counting argument amounts to "there is a bijection between the two sets in question" which didn't really help.