In Hatcher's Chapter 5 (https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/AT/ATch5.pdf) on page 574 (page 57 in the pdf), he states that $\iota_4^2 \in H^8(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z/2)$ is not in the image of $H^8(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z)\to H^8(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z/2)$. The argument for the lower classes ($\iota_4, Sq^2\iota_4, Sq^2Sq^1\iota_4$) which don't come from $H^*(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z)$ is that the Bockstein homomorphism $Sq^1\colon H^*(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z/2) \to H^{*+1}(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z/2)$ applied to those classes is nonzero, so it can't come from $H^*(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z)$. This argument doesn't work for $\iota_4^2 = Sq^4 \iota_4$ because $Sq^1Sq^4 \iota_4 = Sq^5 \iota_4 = 0$.
How can one argue that $\iota_4^2 \in H^8(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z/2)$ doesn't come from $H^8(K(\mathbb Z/2,4);\mathbb Z)$? Is it even true?