I found this problem I have tried but it has been a bit complicated for me,
Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ a bounded function. For each $\epsilon>0$, let $f_\epsilon (x)=\inf\{f(y):|y-x|<\epsilon\}$. They ask us to prove that:
- For each $\epsilon>0$, the function $f_\epsilon$ is measurable Borel.
I tried to show that for each $a\in\mathbb{R}$ we have $f_\epsilon^{-1}((-\infty,a))$ is open in $\mathbb{R}$. Let $x\in f_\epsilon^{-1}((-\infty,a))\Leftrightarrow f_\epsilon(x)<a$. On the other hand we have that for all $R>0$ exists $y_0\in (x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon)$ such that $f(y_0)<f_\epsilon(x)+R<a+R$. Then taking $r=\epsilon-|x-y_0|>0$. Let $z\in (x-r,x+r)$, then $|z-y_0|=|z-x|+|x-y_0|<\epsilon\Rightarrow f_\epsilon(z)\leq f(y_0)<a+R$, for all $R>0$. Thus $f_\epsilon(z)\leq a$, then I need prove that $f_\epsilon(z)\neq a$ that way $(x-r,x+r)\subset f_\epsilon^{-1}((-\infty,a))$ but I couldn't get that $f_\epsilon(z)\neq a$. There are any idea for that?
- The function $h:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ given by $h(x)=\sup\{f_\epsilon(x):\epsilon>0\}$ is measurable Borel too.
I don't know how to start this part, since it is a supreme over an arbitrary set that is not even countable.