On the link, page, $ 2 $, the Berthlot-Ogus isomorphism theorem is stated as follows,
We have a canonical isomorphism, $$ \rho_{\mathrm{cris}} \ : \ H_{\mathrm{cris}}^{i} (X) \otimes_{K_ {0}} K \to H_{\mathrm{dR}}^{i} (\mathscr{X}) \otimes_{O_K} K = H_{\mathrm{dR}}^{i} (X) \tag1 $$ On the other hand, on the following pdf, page, $ 359 $, the author claims that there is an isomorphism, $$ H_ {\mathrm{DH}} (X) \otimes W \simeq H_{\mathrm{cris}} (X (s) / W) \tag2 $$.
What is the difference between the two isomorphisms $ (1) $ and $ (2) $ ?
Are the two isomorphisms the same ?
Thanks in advance for your help.