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Let $X$, $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ be a compact Hausdorff spaces and let $\varphi_i:X\to Y_i$ be a continuous surjection (and so a quotient map).

Let $\sim$ be the minimal closed equivalence relation on $X$ that includes $(x,y)$ with $\varphi_1(x)=\varphi_1(y)$ and $\varphi_2(x)=\varphi_2(y)$ (recall that an equivalence relation on $X$ is called closed if for every closed $A\subset X$ the union of all classes of elements of $A$ is closed; an equivalence relation induced by $\varphi_i$ is closed).

One can show that a quotient space $Z$ of $X$ is a compact Hausdorff space. Let $\psi:X\to Z$ be the corresponding quotient map. I want to show that if $\varphi_i$ are not too wild, then the same is true for $\psi$. Namely:

If $\varphi_i$ are such that $int~\varphi_i(U)\ne\varnothing$, for every open $U\subset X$, does the same property hold for $\psi$?

Here is the motivation for this question. I have two closed subalgebras $E_i$ of $C(X)$ that contain $1$. It is well known that such subalgebras consist of functions of the form $f\circ\varphi_i$, where $\varphi_i:X\to Y_i$ is a surjection onto some compact $Y_i$, and $f\in C(Y_i)$.

It is given that $E_i$ are regular sublattices of $C(X)$ (this means that if a net in $E_i$ decreases to $0$ in $E_i$, the same is true in $C(X)$). I can show that this property for $E_i$ translates into the property of $\varphi_i$ mentioned above and I want to prove that $E_1\cap E_2$ also has this property. Perhaps this property has an algebraic equivalent that can be checked for intersection.

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  • $\begingroup$ By "a net in $E_i$ decreases to $0$" you mean that the net is decreasing, and the infimum of the net within the space $E_i$ is $0$? $\endgroup$ Feb 25, 2021 at 11:44
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    $\begingroup$ @JochenGlueck yes $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Feb 25, 2021 at 23:29

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It seems that the quostion about the skeletal property of $\psi$ has negative answer.

Let us recall that a map $f:X\to Y$ between topological spaces is skeletal if for any nonempty open set $U\subseteq X$ the set $\overline{f[U]}$ has non-empty interior in $Y$.

A corresponding counterexample looks as follows. Fix any homeomorphism $h:2^\omega\to 2^\omega\times 2^\omega$ of the Cantor set onto its square.

Let $X=\{0,1\}\times 2^\omega$ and $Y=2^\omega\times 2^\omega$.

For $i\in\{0,1\}$ let $\mathrm{pr}_i:2^\omega\times 2^\omega\to 2^\omega$ be the projection onto the $i$-th coordinate.

Consider the continuous map $\varphi_i:X\to 2^\omega$ defined by the formula $\varphi_i(0,x)=\mathrm{pr}_i\circ h(x)$ and $\varphi_i(1,x)=x$ for any $x\in 2^\omega$.

Then the quotient space $Z$ in the qustion of @erz can be identified with the space $Y$ and the quotient map $\psi:X\to Z=Y$ with the diagonal product of the maps $\varphi_1$ and $\varphi_2$. It is easy to see that $\psi{\restriction}\{0\}\times 2^\omega$ is open map and the image $\psi[\{1\}\times 2^\omega]$ is nowhere dense in $Z=Y$, being the diagonal of the square $2^\omega\times 2^\omega$. So, $\psi$ is not skeletal in spite of the fact that the maps $\varphi_1,\varphi_2$ are open.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are $\varphi_i$ supposed to map into $2^\omega$ as opposed to $Y$? I also don't understand why $Z=Y$ and $\psi$ is the diagonal product. Intuitively $Z$ has to be smaller than $Y_i$. In you construction $(x,0)\sim(y,1)$ if one of the coordinates of $h(x)$ is $y$. So a lot of points have to become identified. Or am I misunderstanding something? $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Feb 25, 2021 at 23:28
  • $\begingroup$ @erz Concerning the image of $\varphi_i$, you are right: it should be $2^\omega$ and it is corrected. Why $\psi$ is the diagonal product of $\varphi_0$ and $\varphi_1$? I will try to figure out this is a commen to you question. $\endgroup$ Feb 26, 2021 at 4:58
  • $\begingroup$ @erz By your definition of $\sim$, the relation $\sim$ contains the relation $$\Delta=\{(x,y)\in X\times X:\varphi_1(x)=\varphi_1(y)\; and\; \varphi_2(x)=\varphi_2(y)\}=\{(x,y)\in X\times X:\varphi(x)=\varphi(y)\}$$ where $\varphi:X\to Y\times Y$ is the diagonal product of the maps $\varphi_1$ and $\varphi_2$. Since $\Delta$ is a closed equivalence relation, we conclude that $\sim$ is equal to $\Delta$. If the map $\varphi$ is surjective, then it is a quotient (being closed). Consequently, $\psi$ can be identified with $\varphi$. $\endgroup$ Feb 26, 2021 at 5:08
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    $\begingroup$ Ok, i think i understand what's the problem. I guess my English failed me. What I meant to say is $\sim$ contains $(x,y)$ for which $\varphi_1(x)=\varphi_1(y)$ and $(x,y)$ for which $\varphi(x)=\varphi_2(y)$. On the other hand, I think your idea works for what I meant as well: define $\varphi_i(0,x)$ like you do, and $\varphi_i(1,x)=h(x)$. Then, $\sim$ leaves most of $1\times 2^{\omega}$ unchanged, and collapses a small part of it, and the whole $0\times 2^{\omega}$ into a single point. Hence, $0\times 2^{\omega}$ is mapped to a non-isolated point, despite $\varphi_i$ being open $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Feb 26, 2021 at 5:34
  • $\begingroup$ You can say so. Anyway, thank you! $\endgroup$
    – erz
    Feb 26, 2021 at 7:05

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