My question is about Corollary 6.1(ii) in Lectures on Condensed Mathematics by Scholze (page 41). Here is the claim:
The derived category $D(\mathrm{Solid})$ is compactly generated, and the full subcategory $D(\mathrm{Solid})^{\omega}$ of compact objects consists of the bounded complexes all of whose terms are of the form $\Pi_{I} \mathbb{Z}$. The category $D(\mathrm{Solid})^{\omega}$ is contravariantly equivalent to the category $D^{b}(\mathbb{Z})$ via the functor $$ C \mapsto R \underline{\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z}) : D^{b}(\mathbb{Z})^{\mathrm{op}} \rightarrow D(\mathrm{Solid}) $$
I'm not quite understanding how to interpret this internal hom. I know how to view $R\underline{\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z})$ as an object in $D^b(\mathbb{Z})$, but I'm expecting to get an object in $D(\mathrm{Solid})$. One way to get from $D^b(\mathbb{Z})$ to $D(\mathrm{Solid})$ is to first move to $D(\mathrm{Cond}(Ab))$, then apply the derived solidification functor $(-)^{L\blacksquare}$. So should I think of this as $$C \mapsto \left(\underline{R \underline{\vphantom{\_}\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z})}\right)^{L\blacksquare}?$$ Alternatively, is there some reason $\underline{R \underline{\vphantom{\_}\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z})}$ is solid? Or am I completely off base?
Edit: As mentioned in the lectures and by Dan below, the fact that every bounded complex of abelian groups can be resolved by a complex of free abelian groups means that the objects in the internal hom are direct products of $\mathbb{Z}$. This roughly answered my question about $\underline{R \underline{\vphantom{\_}\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z})}$ being solid, but made me realize I don't know exactly what I mean by $\underline{R \underline{\vphantom{\_}\operatorname{Hom}}(C, \mathbb{Z})}$.